Tables — CAT Previous-Year Questions
256 previous-year questions on Tables from CAT, with full solutions. Practise free — check answers as you go; sign in to save your progress.
Tables · CAT PYQs
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
Over the top (OTT) subscribers of a platform are segregated into three categories: i) Kid, ii) Elder, and iii) Others. Some of the subscribers used one app and the others used multiple apps to access the platform. The figure below shows the percentage of the total number of subscribers in 2023 and 2024 who belong to the ‘Kid’ and ‘Elder’ categories.

| Category (% of total subscribers) | 2023 | 2024 |
|---|---|---|
| Kid | 15% | 20% |
| Elder | 20% | 30% |
| Others (balance) | 65% | 50% |
The following additional facts are known about the numbers of subscribers.
1. The total number of subscribers increased by 10% from 2023 to 2024.
2. In 2024, 1/2 of the subscribers from the ‘Kid’ category and 2/3 of the subscribers from the ‘Elder’ category use one app.
3. In 2023, the number of subscribers from the ‘Kid’ category who used multiple apps was the same as the number of subscribers from the ‘Elder’ category who used one app.
4. 10,000 subscribers from the ‘Kid’ category used one app and 15,000 subscribers from the ‘Elder’ category used multiple apps in 2023.
How many subscribers belonged to the ‘Others’ category in 2024?
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
Over the top (OTT) subscribers of a platform are segregated into three categories: i) Kid, ii) Elder, and iii) Others. Some of the subscribers used one app and the others used multiple apps to access the platform. The figure below shows the percentage of the total number of subscribers in 2023 and 2024 who belong to the ‘Kid’ and ‘Elder’ categories.

| Category (% of total subscribers) | 2023 | 2024 |
|---|---|---|
| Kid | 15% | 20% |
| Elder | 20% | 30% |
| Others (balance) | 65% | 50% |
The following additional facts are known about the numbers of subscribers.
1. The total number of subscribers increased by 10% from 2023 to 2024.
2. In 2024, 1/2 of the subscribers from the ‘Kid’ category and 2/3 of the subscribers from the ‘Elder’ category use one app.
3. In 2023, the number of subscribers from the ‘Kid’ category who used multiple apps was the same as the number of subscribers from the ‘Elder’ category who used one app.
4. 10,000 subscribers from the ‘Kid’ category used one app and 15,000 subscribers from the ‘Elder’ category used multiple apps in 2023.
What percentage of subscribers in the ‘Kid’ category used multiple apps in 2023?
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
Over the top (OTT) subscribers of a platform are segregated into three categories: i) Kid, ii) Elder, and iii) Others. Some of the subscribers used one app and the others used multiple apps to access the platform. The figure below shows the percentage of the total number of subscribers in 2023 and 2024 who belong to the ‘Kid’ and ‘Elder’ categories.

| Category (% of total subscribers) | 2023 | 2024 |
|---|---|---|
| Kid | 15% | 20% |
| Elder | 20% | 30% |
| Others (balance) | 65% | 50% |
The following additional facts are known about the numbers of subscribers.
1. The total number of subscribers increased by 10% from 2023 to 2024.
2. In 2024, 1/2 of the subscribers from the ‘Kid’ category and 2/3 of the subscribers from the ‘Elder’ category use one app.
3. In 2023, the number of subscribers from the ‘Kid’ category who used multiple apps was the same as the number of subscribers from the ‘Elder’ category who used one app.
4. 10,000 subscribers from the ‘Kid’ category used one app and 15,000 subscribers from the ‘Elder’ category used multiple apps in 2023.
What was the percentage increase in the number of subscribers in the ‘Elder’ category from 2023 to 2024?
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
Over the top (OTT) subscribers of a platform are segregated into three categories: i) Kid, ii) Elder, and iii) Others. Some of the subscribers used one app and the others used multiple apps to access the platform. The figure below shows the percentage of the total number of subscribers in 2023 and 2024 who belong to the ‘Kid’ and ‘Elder’ categories.

| Category (% of total subscribers) | 2023 | 2024 |
|---|---|---|
| Kid | 15% | 20% |
| Elder | 20% | 30% |
| Others (balance) | 65% | 50% |
The following additional facts are known about the numbers of subscribers.
1. The total number of subscribers increased by 10% from 2023 to 2024.
2. In 2024, 1/2 of the subscribers from the ‘Kid’ category and 2/3 of the subscribers from the ‘Elder’ category use one app.
3. In 2023, the number of subscribers from the ‘Kid’ category who used multiple apps was the same as the number of subscribers from the ‘Elder’ category who used one app.
4. 10,000 subscribers from the ‘Kid’ category used one app and 15,000 subscribers from the ‘Elder’ category used multiple apps in 2023.
What could be the minimum percentage of subscribers who used multiple apps in 2024?
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
The table given below shows the amount, in grams, of carbohydrate, protein, fat and all other nutrients, per 100 grams of nutrients in seven foodgrains. The first column shows the foodgrain category and the second column its codename. The table has some missing values.

| Category | Codename | Carbohydrate | Protein | Fat | Other nutrients |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Cereal | C1 | — | — | 0 | 12 |
| Cereal | C2 | — | — | 3 | 10 |
| Millet | M1 | 62 | 10 | — | — |
| Millet | M2 | — | — | 7 | 16 |
| Millet | M3 | 56 | — | 12 | — |
| Pseudo-cereal | P1 | 66 | — | — | 10 |
| Pseudo-cereal | P2 | — | 14 | — | 8 |
The following additional facts are known.
1. Both the pseudo-cereals had higher amounts of carbohydrate as well as higher amounts of protein than any millet.
2. Both the cereals had higher amounts of carbohydrate than any pseudo-cereal.
3. All the missing values of carbohydrate amounts (in grams) for all the foodgrains are non-zero multiples of 5.
4. All the missing values of protein, fat and other nutrients amounts (in grams) for all the foodgrains are non-zero multiples of 4.
5. P1 contained double the amount of protein that M3 contains.
How many foodgrains had a higher amount of carbohydrate per 100 grams of nutrients than M1?
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
The table given below shows the amount, in grams, of carbohydrate, protein, fat and all other nutrients, per 100 grams of nutrients in seven foodgrains. The first column shows the foodgrain category and the second column its codename. The table has some missing values.

| Category | Codename | Carbohydrate | Protein | Fat | Other nutrients |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Cereal | C1 | — | — | 0 | 12 |
| Cereal | C2 | — | — | 3 | 10 |
| Millet | M1 | 62 | 10 | — | — |
| Millet | M2 | — | — | 7 | 16 |
| Millet | M3 | 56 | — | 12 | — |
| Pseudo-cereal | P1 | 66 | — | — | 10 |
| Pseudo-cereal | P2 | — | 14 | — | 8 |
The following additional facts are known.
1. Both the pseudo-cereals had higher amounts of carbohydrate as well as higher amounts of protein than any millet.
2. Both the cereals had higher amounts of carbohydrate than any pseudo-cereal.
3. All the missing values of carbohydrate amounts (in grams) for all the foodgrains are non-zero multiples of 5.
4. All the missing values of protein, fat and other nutrients amounts (in grams) for all the foodgrains are non-zero multiples of 4.
5. P1 contained double the amount of protein that M3 contains.
How many grams of protein were there in 100 grams of nutrients in M2?
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
The table given below shows the amount, in grams, of carbohydrate, protein, fat and all other nutrients, per 100 grams of nutrients in seven foodgrains. The first column shows the foodgrain category and the second column its codename. The table has some missing values.

| Category | Codename | Carbohydrate | Protein | Fat | Other nutrients |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Cereal | C1 | — | — | 0 | 12 |
| Cereal | C2 | — | — | 3 | 10 |
| Millet | M1 | 62 | 10 | — | — |
| Millet | M2 | — | — | 7 | 16 |
| Millet | M3 | 56 | — | 12 | — |
| Pseudo-cereal | P1 | 66 | — | — | 10 |
| Pseudo-cereal | P2 | — | 14 | — | 8 |
The following additional facts are known.
1. Both the pseudo-cereals had higher amounts of carbohydrate as well as higher amounts of protein than any millet.
2. Both the cereals had higher amounts of carbohydrate than any pseudo-cereal.
3. All the missing values of carbohydrate amounts (in grams) for all the foodgrains are non-zero multiples of 5.
4. All the missing values of protein, fat and other nutrients amounts (in grams) for all the foodgrains are non-zero multiples of 4.
5. P1 contained double the amount of protein that M3 contains.
How many grams of other nutrients were there in 100 grams of nutrients in M3?
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
The table given below shows the amount, in grams, of carbohydrate, protein, fat and all other nutrients, per 100 grams of nutrients in seven foodgrains. The first column shows the foodgrain category and the second column its codename. The table has some missing values.

| Category | Codename | Carbohydrate | Protein | Fat | Other nutrients |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Cereal | C1 | — | — | 0 | 12 |
| Cereal | C2 | — | — | 3 | 10 |
| Millet | M1 | 62 | 10 | — | — |
| Millet | M2 | — | — | 7 | 16 |
| Millet | M3 | 56 | — | 12 | — |
| Pseudo-cereal | P1 | 66 | — | — | 10 |
| Pseudo-cereal | P2 | — | 14 | — | 8 |
The following additional facts are known.
1. Both the pseudo-cereals had higher amounts of carbohydrate as well as higher amounts of protein than any millet.
2. Both the cereals had higher amounts of carbohydrate than any pseudo-cereal.
3. All the missing values of carbohydrate amounts (in grams) for all the foodgrains are non-zero multiples of 5.
4. All the missing values of protein, fat and other nutrients amounts (in grams) for all the foodgrains are non-zero multiples of 4.
5. P1 contained double the amount of protein that M3 contains.
What is the median of the number of grams of protein in 100 grams of nutrients among these food grains?
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
Out of 10 countries -- Country 1 through Country 10 -- Country 9 has the highest gross domestic product (GDP), and Country 10 has the highest GDP per capita. GDP per capita is the GDP of a country divided by its population. The table below provides the following data about Country 1 through Country 8 for the year 2024.
• Column 1 gives the country's identity.
• Column 2 gives the country’s GDP as a fraction of the GDP of Country 9.
• Column 3 gives the country’s GDP per capita as a fraction of the GDP per capita of Country 10.
• Column 4 gives the country’s annual GDP growth rate.
• Column 5 gives the country’s annual population growth rate.

| Country | GDP (fraction of C9) | GDP per capita (fraction of C10) | GDP growth rate | Population growth rate |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Country 1 | 0.15 | 0.41 | 0.2% | -0.12% |
| Country 2 | 0.14 | 0.25 | 0.9% | -0.41% |
| Country 3 | 0.13 | 0.02 | 6.5% | 0.70% |
| Country 4 | 0.12 | 0.38 | 0.5% | 0.49% |
| Country 5 | 0.10 | 0.36 | 0.7% | 0.31% |
| Country 6 | 0.08 | 0.08 | 3.2% | 0.61% |
| Country 7 | 0.08 | 0.30 | 0.7% | -0.11% |
| Country 8 | 0.07 | 0.41 | 1.2% | 0.71% |
Assume that the GDP growth rates and population growth rates of the countries will remain constant for the next three years.
Which one among the countries 1 through 8, has the smallest population in 2024?
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
Out of 10 countries -- Country 1 through Country 10 -- Country 9 has the highest gross domestic product (GDP), and Country 10 has the highest GDP per capita. GDP per capita is the GDP of a country divided by its population. The table below provides the following data about Country 1 through Country 8 for the year 2024.
• Column 1 gives the country's identity.
• Column 2 gives the country’s GDP as a fraction of the GDP of Country 9.
• Column 3 gives the country’s GDP per capita as a fraction of the GDP per capita of Country 10.
• Column 4 gives the country’s annual GDP growth rate.
• Column 5 gives the country’s annual population growth rate.

| Country | GDP (fraction of C9) | GDP per capita (fraction of C10) | GDP growth rate | Population growth rate |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Country 1 | 0.15 | 0.41 | 0.2% | -0.12% |
| Country 2 | 0.14 | 0.25 | 0.9% | -0.41% |
| Country 3 | 0.13 | 0.02 | 6.5% | 0.70% |
| Country 4 | 0.12 | 0.38 | 0.5% | 0.49% |
| Country 5 | 0.10 | 0.36 | 0.7% | 0.31% |
| Country 6 | 0.08 | 0.08 | 3.2% | 0.61% |
| Country 7 | 0.08 | 0.30 | 0.7% | -0.11% |
| Country 8 | 0.07 | 0.41 | 1.2% | 0.71% |
Assume that the GDP growth rates and population growth rates of the countries will remain constant for the next three years.
The ratio of Country 4’s GDP to Country 5’s GDP in 2026 will be closest to
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
Out of 10 countries -- Country 1 through Country 10 -- Country 9 has the highest gross domestic product (GDP), and Country 10 has the highest GDP per capita. GDP per capita is the GDP of a country divided by its population. The table below provides the following data about Country 1 through Country 8 for the year 2024.
• Column 1 gives the country's identity.
• Column 2 gives the country’s GDP as a fraction of the GDP of Country 9.
• Column 3 gives the country’s GDP per capita as a fraction of the GDP per capita of Country 10.
• Column 4 gives the country’s annual GDP growth rate.
• Column 5 gives the country’s annual population growth rate.

| Country | GDP (fraction of C9) | GDP per capita (fraction of C10) | GDP growth rate | Population growth rate |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Country 1 | 0.15 | 0.41 | 0.2% | -0.12% |
| Country 2 | 0.14 | 0.25 | 0.9% | -0.41% |
| Country 3 | 0.13 | 0.02 | 6.5% | 0.70% |
| Country 4 | 0.12 | 0.38 | 0.5% | 0.49% |
| Country 5 | 0.10 | 0.36 | 0.7% | 0.31% |
| Country 6 | 0.08 | 0.08 | 3.2% | 0.61% |
| Country 7 | 0.08 | 0.30 | 0.7% | -0.11% |
| Country 8 | 0.07 | 0.41 | 1.2% | 0.71% |
Assume that the GDP growth rates and population growth rates of the countries will remain constant for the next three years.
Which one among the countries 1, 4, 5, and 7 will have the largest population in 2027?
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
Out of 10 countries -- Country 1 through Country 10 -- Country 9 has the highest gross domestic product (GDP), and Country 10 has the highest GDP per capita. GDP per capita is the GDP of a country divided by its population. The table below provides the following data about Country 1 through Country 8 for the year 2024.
• Column 1 gives the country's identity.
• Column 2 gives the country’s GDP as a fraction of the GDP of Country 9.
• Column 3 gives the country’s GDP per capita as a fraction of the GDP per capita of Country 10.
• Column 4 gives the country’s annual GDP growth rate.
• Column 5 gives the country’s annual population growth rate.

| Country | GDP (fraction of C9) | GDP per capita (fraction of C10) | GDP growth rate | Population growth rate |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Country 1 | 0.15 | 0.41 | 0.2% | -0.12% |
| Country 2 | 0.14 | 0.25 | 0.9% | -0.41% |
| Country 3 | 0.13 | 0.02 | 6.5% | 0.70% |
| Country 4 | 0.12 | 0.38 | 0.5% | 0.49% |
| Country 5 | 0.10 | 0.36 | 0.7% | 0.31% |
| Country 6 | 0.08 | 0.08 | 3.2% | 0.61% |
| Country 7 | 0.08 | 0.30 | 0.7% | -0.11% |
| Country 8 | 0.07 | 0.41 | 1.2% | 0.71% |
Assume that the GDP growth rates and population growth rates of the countries will remain constant for the next three years.
For how many countries among Country 1 through Country 8 will the GDP per capita in 2027 be lower than that in 2024?
Answer the next 5 questions based on the information given below:
Pulak, Qasim, Ritesh, and Suresh participated in a tournament comprising of eight rounds. In each round, they formed two pairs, with each of them being in exactly one pair. The only restriction in the pairing was that the pairs would change in successive rounds. For example, if Pulak formed a pair with Qasim in the first round, then he would have to form a pair with Ritesh or Suresh in the second round. He would be free to pair with Qasim again in the third round. In each round, each pair decided whether to play the game in that round or not. If they decided not to play, then no money was exchanged between them. If they decided to play, they had to bet either â¹1 or â¹2 in that round. For example, if they chose to bet â¹2, then the player winning the game got â¹2 from the one losing the game.
At the beginning of the tournament, the players had â¹10 each. The following table shows partial information about the amounts that the players had at the end of each of the eight rounds. It shows every time a player had â¹10 at the end of a round, as well as every time, at the end of a round, a player had either the minimum or the maximum amount that he would have had across the eight rounds. For example, Suresh had â¹10 at the end of Rounds 1, 3, and 8 and not after any of the other rounds. The maximum amount that he had at the end of any round was â¹13 (at the end of Round 5), and the minimum amount he had at the end of any round was â¹8 (at the end of Round 2). At the end of all other rounds, he must have had either â¹9, â¹11, or â¹12.
It was also known that Pulak and Qasim had the same amount of money with them at the end of Round 4.
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What BEST can be said about the amount of money that Ritesh had with him at the end of Round 8?
Answer the next 5 questions based on the information given below:
Pulak, Qasim, Ritesh, and Suresh participated in a tournament comprising of eight rounds. In each round, they formed two pairs, with each of them being in exactly one pair. The only restriction in the pairing was that the pairs would change in successive rounds. For example, if Pulak formed a pair with Qasim in the first round, then he would have to form a pair with Ritesh or Suresh in the second round. He would be free to pair with Qasim again in the third round. In each round, each pair decided whether to play the game in that round or not. If they decided not to play, then no money was exchanged between them. If they decided to play, they had to bet either â¹1 or â¹2 in that round. For example, if they chose to bet â¹2, then the player winning the game got â¹2 from the one losing the game.
At the beginning of the tournament, the players had â¹10 each. The following table shows partial information about the amounts that the players had at the end of each of the eight rounds. It shows every time a player had â¹10 at the end of a round, as well as every time, at the end of a round, a player had either the minimum or the maximum amount that he would have had across the eight rounds. For example, Suresh had â¹10 at the end of Rounds 1, 3, and 8 and not after any of the other rounds. The maximum amount that he had at the end of any round was â¹13 (at the end of Round 5), and the minimum amount he had at the end of any round was â¹8 (at the end of Round 2). At the end of all other rounds, he must have had either â¹9, â¹11, or â¹12.
It was also known that Pulak and Qasim had the same amount of money with them at the end of Round 4.
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What BEST can be said about the amount of money that Pulak had with him at the end of Round 6?
Answer the next 5 questions based on the information given below:
Pulak, Qasim, Ritesh, and Suresh participated in a tournament comprising of eight rounds. In each round, they formed two pairs, with each of them being in exactly one pair. The only restriction in the pairing was that the pairs would change in successive rounds. For example, if Pulak formed a pair with Qasim in the first round, then he would have to form a pair with Ritesh or Suresh in the second round. He would be free to pair with Qasim again in the third round. In each round, each pair decided whether to play the game in that round or not. If they decided not to play, then no money was exchanged between them. If they decided to play, they had to bet either â¹1 or â¹2 in that round. For example, if they chose to bet â¹2, then the player winning the game got â¹2 from the one losing the game.
At the beginning of the tournament, the players had â¹10 each. The following table shows partial information about the amounts that the players had at the end of each of the eight rounds. It shows every time a player had â¹10 at the end of a round, as well as every time, at the end of a round, a player had either the minimum or the maximum amount that he would have had across the eight rounds. For example, Suresh had â¹10 at the end of Rounds 1, 3, and 8 and not after any of the other rounds. The maximum amount that he had at the end of any round was â¹13 (at the end of Round 5), and the minimum amount he had at the end of any round was â¹8 (at the end of Round 2). At the end of all other rounds, he must have had either â¹9, â¹11, or â¹12.
It was also known that Pulak and Qasim had the same amount of money with them at the end of Round 4.
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How much money (in â¹) did Ritesh have at the end of Round 4?
Answer the next 5 questions based on the information given below:
Pulak, Qasim, Ritesh, and Suresh participated in a tournament comprising of eight rounds. In each round, they formed two pairs, with each of them being in exactly one pair. The only restriction in the pairing was that the pairs would change in successive rounds. For example, if Pulak formed a pair with Qasim in the first round, then he would have to form a pair with Ritesh or Suresh in the second round. He would be free to pair with Qasim again in the third round. In each round, each pair decided whether to play the game in that round or not. If they decided not to play, then no money was exchanged between them. If they decided to play, they had to bet either â¹1 or â¹2 in that round. For example, if they chose to bet â¹2, then the player winning the game got â¹2 from the one losing the game.
At the beginning of the tournament, the players had â¹10 each. The following table shows partial information about the amounts that the players had at the end of each of the eight rounds. It shows every time a player had â¹10 at the end of a round, as well as every time, at the end of a round, a player had either the minimum or the maximum amount that he would have had across the eight rounds. For example, Suresh had â¹10 at the end of Rounds 1, 3, and 8 and not after any of the other rounds. The maximum amount that he had at the end of any round was â¹13 (at the end of Round 5), and the minimum amount he had at the end of any round was â¹8 (at the end of Round 2). At the end of all other rounds, he must have had either â¹9, â¹11, or â¹12.
It was also known that Pulak and Qasim had the same amount of money with them at the end of Round 4.
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How many games were played with a bet of â¹2?
Answer the next 5 questions based on the information given below:
Pulak, Qasim, Ritesh, and Suresh participated in a tournament comprising of eight rounds. In each round, they formed two pairs, with each of them being in exactly one pair. The only restriction in the pairing was that the pairs would change in successive rounds. For example, if Pulak formed a pair with Qasim in the first round, then he would have to form a pair with Ritesh or Suresh in the second round. He would be free to pair with Qasim again in the third round. In each round, each pair decided whether to play the game in that round or not. If they decided not to play, then no money was exchanged between them. If they decided to play, they had to bet either â¹1 or â¹2 in that round. For example, if they chose to bet â¹2, then the player winning the game got â¹2 from the one losing the game.
At the beginning of the tournament, the players had â¹10 each. The following table shows partial information about the amounts that the players had at the end of each of the eight rounds. It shows every time a player had â¹10 at the end of a round, as well as every time, at the end of a round, a player had either the minimum or the maximum amount that he would have had across the eight rounds. For example, Suresh had â¹10 at the end of Rounds 1, 3, and 8 and not after any of the other rounds. The maximum amount that he had at the end of any round was â¹13 (at the end of Round 5), and the minimum amount he had at the end of any round was â¹8 (at the end of Round 2). At the end of all other rounds, he must have had either â¹9, â¹11, or â¹12.
It was also known that Pulak and Qasim had the same amount of money with them at the end of Round 4.
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Which of the following pairings was made in Round 5?
Answer the next 4 questions based on the information given below.
The local office of the APP-CAB company evaluates the performance of five cab drivers, Arun, Barun, Chandan, Damodaran, and Eman for their monthly payment based on ratings infive different parameters (P1 to P5) as given below:
P1: timely arrival
P2: behaviour
P3: comfortable ride
P4: driver's familiarity with the route
P5: value for money
Based on feedback from the customers, the office assigns a rating from 1 to 5 in each of these parameters. Each rating is an integer from a low value of 1 to a high value of 5. The final rating of a driver is the average of his ratings in these five parameters. The monthly payment of the drivers has two parts – a fixed payment and final rating-based bonus. If a driver gets a rating of 1 in any of the parameters, he is not eligible to get bonus. To be eligible for bonus a driver also needs to get a rating of five in at least one of the parameters.
The partial information related to the ratings of the drivers in different parameters and the monthly payment structure (in rupees) is given in the table below:
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The following additional facts are known.
- Arun and Barun have got a rating of 5 in exactly one of the parameters. Chandan has got a rating of 5 in exactly two parameters.
- None of drivers has got the same rating in three parameters.
If Damodaran does not get a bonus, what is the maximum possible value of his final rating?
Answer the next 4 questions based on the information given below.
The local office of the APP-CAB company evaluates the performance of five cab drivers, Arun, Barun, Chandan, Damodaran, and Eman for their monthly payment based on ratings infive different parameters (P1 to P5) as given below:
P1: timely arrival
P2: behaviour
P3: comfortable ride
P4: driver's familiarity with the route
P5: value for money
Based on feedback from the customers, the office assigns a rating from 1 to 5 in each of these parameters. Each rating is an integer from a low value of 1 to a high value of 5. The final rating of a driver is the average of his ratings in these five parameters. The monthly payment of the drivers has two parts – a fixed payment and final rating-based bonus. If a driver gets a rating of 1 in any of the parameters, he is not eligible to get bonus. To be eligible for bonus a driver also needs to get a rating of five in at least one of the parameters.
The partial information related to the ratings of the drivers in different parameters and the monthly payment structure (in rupees) is given in the table below:
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The following additional facts are known.
- Arun and Barun have got a rating of 5 in exactly one of the parameters. Chandan has got a rating of 5 in exactly two parameters.
- None of drivers has got the same rating in three parameters.
If Eman gets a bonus, what is the minimum possible value of his final rating?
Answer the next 4 questions based on the information given below.
The local office of the APP-CAB company evaluates the performance of five cab drivers, Arun, Barun, Chandan, Damodaran, and Eman for their monthly payment based on ratings infive different parameters (P1 to P5) as given below:
P1: timely arrival
P2: behaviour
P3: comfortable ride
P4: driver's familiarity with the route
P5: value for money
Based on feedback from the customers, the office assigns a rating from 1 to 5 in each of these parameters. Each rating is an integer from a low value of 1 to a high value of 5. The final rating of a driver is the average of his ratings in these five parameters. The monthly payment of the drivers has two parts – a fixed payment and final rating-based bonus. If a driver gets a rating of 1 in any of the parameters, he is not eligible to get bonus. To be eligible for bonus a driver also needs to get a rating of five in at least one of the parameters.
The partial information related to the ratings of the drivers in different parameters and the monthly payment structure (in rupees) is given in the table below:
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The following additional facts are known.
- Arun and Barun have got a rating of 5 in exactly one of the parameters. Chandan has got a rating of 5 in exactly two parameters.
- None of drivers has got the same rating in three parameters.
If all five drivers get bonus, what is the minimum possible value of the monthly payment (in rupees) that a driver gets?
Answer the next 4 questions based on the information given below.
The local office of the APP-CAB company evaluates the performance of five cab drivers, Arun, Barun, Chandan, Damodaran, and Eman for their monthly payment based on ratings infive different parameters (P1 to P5) as given below:
P1: timely arrival
P2: behaviour
P3: comfortable ride
P4: driver's familiarity with the route
P5: value for money
Based on feedback from the customers, the office assigns a rating from 1 to 5 in each of these parameters. Each rating is an integer from a low value of 1 to a high value of 5. The final rating of a driver is the average of his ratings in these five parameters. The monthly payment of the drivers has two parts – a fixed payment and final rating-based bonus. If a driver gets a rating of 1 in any of the parameters, he is not eligible to get bonus. To be eligible for bonus a driver also needs to get a rating of five in at least one of the parameters.
The partial information related to the ratings of the drivers in different parameters and the monthly payment structure (in rupees) is given in the table below:
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The following additional facts are known.
- Arun and Barun have got a rating of 5 in exactly one of the parameters. Chandan has got a rating of 5 in exactly two parameters.
- None of drivers has got the same rating in three parameters.
If all five drivers get bonus, what is the maximum possible value of the monthly payment (in rupees) that a driver gets?
Answer the next 4 questions based on the information given below.
A chain of departmental stores has outlets in Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru and Kolkata. The sales are categorized by its three departments – ‘Apparel’, ‘Electronics’, and ‘HomeDecor’. An Accountant has been asked to prepare a summary of the 2018 and 2019 sales amounts for an internal report. He has collated partial information and prepared the following table.
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The following additional information is known.
- The sales amounts in the Apparel departments were the same for Delhi and Kolkata in 2018.
- The sales amounts in the Apparel departments were the same for Mumbai and Bengaluru in 2018. This sales amount matched the sales amount in the Apparel department for Delhi in 2019.
- The sales amounts in the HomeDecor departments were the same for Mumbai and Kolkata in 2018.
- The sum of the sales amounts of four Electronics departments increased by the same amount as the sum of the sales amounts of four Apparel departments from 2018 to 2019.
- The total sales amounts of the four HomeDecor departments increased by Rs 70 Crores from 2018 to 2019.
- The sales amounts in the HomeDecor departments of Delhi and Bengaluru each increased by Rs 20 Crores from 2018 to 2019.
- The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Delhi and Bengaluru each increased by the same amount in 2019 from 2018. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Mumbai and Kolkata also each increased by the same amount in 2019 from 2018.
- The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Delhi, Kolkata and Bengaluru in 2019 followed an Arithmetic
In HomeDecor departments of which cities were the sales amounts the highest in 2018 and 2019, respectively?
Answer the next 4 questions based on the information given below.
A chain of departmental stores has outlets in Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru and Kolkata. The sales are categorized by its three departments – ‘Apparel’, ‘Electronics’, and ‘HomeDecor’. An Accountant has been asked to prepare a summary of the 2018 and 2019 sales amounts for an internal report. He has collated partial information and prepared the following table.
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The following additional information is known.
- The sales amounts in the Apparel departments were the same for Delhi and Kolkata in 2018.
- The sales amounts in the Apparel departments were the same for Mumbai and Bengaluru in 2018. This sales amount matched the sales amount in the Apparel department for Delhi in 2019.
- The sales amounts in the HomeDecor departments were the same for Mumbai and Kolkata in 2018.
- The sum of the sales amounts of four Electronics departments increased by the same amount as the sum of the sales amounts of four Apparel departments from 2018 to 2019.
- The total sales amounts of the four HomeDecor departments increased by Rs 70 Crores from 2018 to 2019.
- The sales amounts in the HomeDecor departments of Delhi and Bengaluru each increased by Rs 20 Crores from 2018 to 2019.
- The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Delhi and Bengaluru each increased by the same amount in 2019 from 2018. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Mumbai and Kolkata also each increased by the same amount in 2019 from 2018.
- The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Delhi, Kolkata and Bengaluru in 2019 followed an Arithmetic
What was the increase in sales amount, in Crore Rupees, in the Apparel department of Mumbai from 2018 to 2019?
Answer the next 4 questions based on the information given below.
A chain of departmental stores has outlets in Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru and Kolkata. The sales are categorized by its three departments – ‘Apparel’, ‘Electronics’, and ‘HomeDecor’. An Accountant has been asked to prepare a summary of the 2018 and 2019 sales amounts for an internal report. He has collated partial information and prepared the following table.
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The following additional information is known.
- The sales amounts in the Apparel departments were the same for Delhi and Kolkata in 2018.
- The sales amounts in the Apparel departments were the same for Mumbai and Bengaluru in 2018. This sales amount matched the sales amount in the Apparel department for Delhi in 2019.
- The sales amounts in the HomeDecor departments were the same for Mumbai and Kolkata in 2018.
- The sum of the sales amounts of four Electronics departments increased by the same amount as the sum of the sales amounts of four Apparel departments from 2018 to 2019.
- The total sales amounts of the four HomeDecor departments increased by Rs 70 Crores from 2018 to 2019.
- The sales amounts in the HomeDecor departments of Delhi and Bengaluru each increased by Rs 20 Crores from 2018 to 2019.
- The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Delhi and Bengaluru each increased by the same amount in 2019 from 2018. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Mumbai and Kolkata also each increased by the same amount in 2019 from 2018.
- The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Delhi, Kolkata and Bengaluru in 2019 followed an Arithmetic
Among all the 12 departments (i.e., the 3 departments in each of the 4 cities), what was the maximum percentage increase in sales amount from 2018 to 2019?
Answer the next 4 questions based on the information given below.
A chain of departmental stores has outlets in Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru and Kolkata. The sales are categorized by its three departments – ‘Apparel’, ‘Electronics’, and ‘HomeDecor’. An Accountant has been asked to prepare a summary of the 2018 and 2019 sales amounts for an internal report. He has collated partial information and prepared the following table.
âââââââ
The following additional information is known.
- The sales amounts in the Apparel departments were the same for Delhi and Kolkata in 2018.
- The sales amounts in the Apparel departments were the same for Mumbai and Bengaluru in 2018. This sales amount matched the sales amount in the Apparel department for Delhi in 2019.
- The sales amounts in the HomeDecor departments were the same for Mumbai and Kolkata in 2018.
- The sum of the sales amounts of four Electronics departments increased by the same amount as the sum of the sales amounts of four Apparel departments from 2018 to 2019.
- The total sales amounts of the four HomeDecor departments increased by Rs 70 Crores from 2018 to 2019.
- The sales amounts in the HomeDecor departments of Delhi and Bengaluru each increased by Rs 20 Crores from 2018 to 2019.
- The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Delhi and Bengaluru each increased by the same amount in 2019 from 2018. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Mumbai and Kolkata also each increased by the same amount in 2019 from 2018.
- The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Delhi, Kolkata and Bengaluru in 2019 followed an Arithmetic
What was the total sales amount, in Crore Rupees, in 2019 for the chain of departmental stores?
Answer the next 6 questions based on the information given below.
In an election several candidates contested for a constituency. In any constituency, the winning candidate was the one who polled the highest number of votes, the first runner up was the one who polled the second highest number of votes, the second runner up was the one who polled the third highest number of votes, and so on. There were no ties (in terms of number of votes polled by the candidates) in any of the constituencies in this election.
In an electoral system, a security deposit is the sum of money that a candidate is required to pay to the election commission before he or she is permitted to contest. Only the defeated candidates (i.e., one who is not the winning candidate) who fail to secure more than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency, lose their security deposits.
The following table provides some incomplete information about votes polled in four constituencies: A, B, C and D, in this election.
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The following additional facts are known:
- The first runner up polled 10,000 more votes than the second runner up in constituency A.
- None of the candidates who contested in constituency C lost their security deposit. The difference in votes polled by any pair of candidates in this constituency was at least 10,000.
- The winning candidate in constituency D polled 5% of valid votes more than that of the first runner up. All the candidates who lost their security deposits while contesting for this constituency, put together, polled 35% of the valid votes.
What is the percentage of votes polled in total by all the candidates who lost their security deposits while contesting for constituency A?
Answer the next 6 questions based on the information given below.
In an election several candidates contested for a constituency. In any constituency, the winning candidate was the one who polled the highest number of votes, the first runner up was the one who polled the second highest number of votes, the second runner up was the one who polled the third highest number of votes, and so on. There were no ties (in terms of number of votes polled by the candidates) in any of the constituencies in this election.
In an electoral system, a security deposit is the sum of money that a candidate is required to pay to the election commission before he or she is permitted to contest. Only the defeated candidates (i.e., one who is not the winning candidate) who fail to secure more than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency, lose their security deposits.
The following table provides some incomplete information about votes polled in four constituencies: A, B, C and D, in this election.
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The following additional facts are known:
- The first runner up polled 10,000 more votes than the second runner up in constituency A.
- None of the candidates who contested in constituency C lost their security deposit. The difference in votes polled by any pair of candidates in this constituency was at least 10,000.
- The winning candidate in constituency D polled 5% of valid votes more than that of the first runner up. All the candidates who lost their security deposits while contesting for this constituency, put together, polled 35% of the valid votes.
How many candidates who contested in constituency B lost their security deposit?
Answer the next 6 questions based on the information given below.
In an election several candidates contested for a constituency. In any constituency, the winning candidate was the one who polled the highest number of votes, the first runner up was the one who polled the second highest number of votes, the second runner up was the one who polled the third highest number of votes, and so on. There were no ties (in terms of number of votes polled by the candidates) in any of the constituencies in this election.
In an electoral system, a security deposit is the sum of money that a candidate is required to pay to the election commission before he or she is permitted to contest. Only the defeated candidates (i.e., one who is not the winning candidate) who fail to secure more than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency, lose their security deposits.
The following table provides some incomplete information about votes polled in four constituencies: A, B, C and D, in this election.
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The following additional facts are known:
- The first runner up polled 10,000 more votes than the second runner up in constituency A.
- None of the candidates who contested in constituency C lost their security deposit. The difference in votes polled by any pair of candidates in this constituency was at least 10,000.
- The winning candidate in constituency D polled 5% of valid votes more than that of the first runner up. All the candidates who lost their security deposits while contesting for this constituency, put together, polled 35% of the valid votes.
What BEST can be concluded about the number of votes polled by the winning candidate in constituency C?
Answer the next 6 questions based on the information given below.
In an election several candidates contested for a constituency. In any constituency, the winning candidate was the one who polled the highest number of votes, the first runner up was the one who polled the second highest number of votes, the second runner up was the one who polled the third highest number of votes, and so on. There were no ties (in terms of number of votes polled by the candidates) in any of the constituencies in this election.
In an electoral system, a security deposit is the sum of money that a candidate is required to pay to the election commission before he or she is permitted to contest. Only the defeated candidates (i.e., one who is not the winning candidate) who fail to secure more than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency, lose their security deposits.
The following table provides some incomplete information about votes polled in four constituencies: A, B, C and D, in this election.
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The following additional facts are known:
- The first runner up polled 10,000 more votes than the second runner up in constituency A.
- None of the candidates who contested in constituency C lost their security deposit. The difference in votes polled by any pair of candidates in this constituency was at least 10,000.
- The winning candidate in constituency D polled 5% of valid votes more than that of the first runner up. All the candidates who lost their security deposits while contesting for this constituency, put together, polled 35% of the valid votes.
What was the number of valid votes polled in constituency D?
Answer the next 6 questions based on the information given below.
In an election several candidates contested for a constituency. In any constituency, the winning candidate was the one who polled the highest number of votes, the first runner up was the one who polled the second highest number of votes, the second runner up was the one who polled the third highest number of votes, and so on. There were no ties (in terms of number of votes polled by the candidates) in any of the constituencies in this election.
In an electoral system, a security deposit is the sum of money that a candidate is required to pay to the election commission before he or she is permitted to contest. Only the defeated candidates (i.e., one who is not the winning candidate) who fail to secure more than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency, lose their security deposits.
The following table provides some incomplete information about votes polled in four constituencies: A, B, C and D, in this election.
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The following additional facts are known:
- The first runner up polled 10,000 more votes than the second runner up in constituency A.
- None of the candidates who contested in constituency C lost their security deposit. The difference in votes polled by any pair of candidates in this constituency was at least 10,000.
- The winning candidate in constituency D polled 5% of valid votes more than that of the first runner up. All the candidates who lost their security deposits while contesting for this constituency, put together, polled 35% of the valid votes.
The winning margin of a constituency is defined as the difference of votes polled by the winner and that of the first runner up. Which of the following CANNOT be the list of constituencies, in increasing order of winning margin?
Answer the next 6 questions based on the information given below.
In an election several candidates contested for a constituency. In any constituency, the winning candidate was the one who polled the highest number of votes, the first runner up was the one who polled the second highest number of votes, the second runner up was the one who polled the third highest number of votes, and so on. There were no ties (in terms of number of votes polled by the candidates) in any of the constituencies in this election.
In an electoral system, a security deposit is the sum of money that a candidate is required to pay to the election commission before he or she is permitted to contest. Only the defeated candidates (i.e., one who is not the winning candidate) who fail to secure more than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency, lose their security deposits.
The following table provides some incomplete information about votes polled in four constituencies: A, B, C and D, in this election.
âââââââ
The following additional facts are known:
- The first runner up polled 10,000 more votes than the second runner up in constituency A.
- None of the candidates who contested in constituency C lost their security deposit. The difference in votes polled by any pair of candidates in this constituency was at least 10,000.
- The winning candidate in constituency D polled 5% of valid votes more than that of the first runner up. All the candidates who lost their security deposits while contesting for this constituency, put together, polled 35% of the valid votes.
For all the four constituencies taken together, what was the approximate number of votes polled by all the candidates who lost their security deposit expressed as a percentage of the total valid votes from these four constituencies?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The Ministry of Home Affairs is analysing crimes committed by foreigners in different states and union territories (UT) of India. All cases refer to the ones registered against foreigners in 2016.
The number of cases – classified into three categories: IPC crimes, SLL crimes and other crimes – for nine states/UTs are shown in the figure below. These nine belong to the top ten states/UTs in terms of the total number of cases registered. The remaining state (among top ten) is West Bengal, where all the 520 cases registered were SLL crimes.

The table below shows the ranks of the ten states/UTs mentioned above among ALL states/UTs of India in terms of the number of cases registered in each of the three category of crimes. A state/UT is given rank r for a category of crimes if there are (r−1) states/UTs having a larger number of cases registered in that category of crimes. For example, if two states have the same number of cases in a category, and exactly three other states/UTs have larger numbers of cases registered in the same category, then both the states are given rank 4 in that category. Missing ranks in the table are denoted by *.
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In the two states where the highest total number of cases are registered, the ratio of the total number of cases in IPC crimes to the total number in SLL crimes is closest to ?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The Ministry of Home Affairs is analysing crimes committed by foreigners in different states and union territories (UT) of India. All cases refer to the ones registered against foreigners in 2016.
The number of cases – classified into three categories: IPC crimes, SLL crimes and other crimes – for nine states/UTs are shown in the figure below. These nine belong to the top ten states/UTs in terms of the total number of cases registered. The remaining state (among top ten) is West Bengal, where all the 520 cases registered were SLL crimes.

The table below shows the ranks of the ten states/UTs mentioned above among ALL states/UTs of India in terms of the number of cases registered in each of the three category of crimes. A state/UT is given rank r for a category of crimes if there are (r−1) states/UTs having a larger number of cases registered in that category of crimes. For example, if two states have the same number of cases in a category, and exactly three other states/UTs have larger numbers of cases registered in the same category, then both the states are given rank 4 in that category. Missing ranks in the table are denoted by *.
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Which of the following is DEFINITELY true about the ranks of states/UT in the ‘other crimes’ category?
i. Tamil Nadu: 2
ii. Puducherry: 3
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
Students in a college are discussing two proposals –
A: a proposal by the authorities to introduce dress code on campus, and
B: a proposal by the students to allow multinational food franchises to set up outlets on college campus.
A student does not necessarily support either of the two proposals.
In an upcoming election for student union president, there are two candidates in fray: Sunita and Ragini. Every student prefers one of the two candidates.
A survey was conducted among the students by picking a sample of 500 students. The following information was noted from this survey.
- 250 students supported proposal A and 250 students supported proposal B.
- Among the 200 students who preferred Sunita as student union president, 80% supported proposal A.
- Among those who preferred Ragini, 30% supported proposal A.
- 20% of those who supported proposal B preferred Sunita.
- 40% of those who did not support proposal B preferred Ragini.
- Every student who preferred Sunita and supported proposal B also supported proposal A.
- Among those who preferred Ragini, 20% did not support any of the proposals.
What percentage of the students surveyed who supported both proposals A and B preferred Sunita as student union president?
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
Students in a college are discussing two proposals –
A: a proposal by the authorities to introduce dress code on campus, and
B: a proposal by the students to allow multinational food franchises to set up outlets on college campus.
A student does not necessarily support either of the two proposals.
In an upcoming election for student union president, there are two candidates in fray: Sunita and Ragini. Every student prefers one of the two candidates.
A survey was conducted among the students by picking a sample of 500 students. The following information was noted from this survey.
- 250 students supported proposal A and 250 students supported proposal B.
- Among the 200 students who preferred Sunita as student union president, 80% supported proposal A.
- Among those who preferred Ragini, 30% supported proposal A.
- 20% of those who supported proposal B preferred Sunita.
- 40% of those who did not support proposal B preferred Ragini.
- Every student who preferred Sunita and supported proposal B also supported proposal A.
- Among those who preferred Ragini, 20% did not support any of the proposals.
Among the students surveyed who supported proposal A, what percentage preferred Sunita for student union president?
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
Students in a college are discussing two proposals –
A: a proposal by the authorities to introduce dress code on campus, and
B: a proposal by the students to allow multinational food franchises to set up outlets on college campus.
A student does not necessarily support either of the two proposals.
In an upcoming election for student union president, there are two candidates in fray: Sunita and Ragini. Every student prefers one of the two candidates.
A survey was conducted among the students by picking a sample of 500 students. The following information was noted from this survey.
- 250 students supported proposal A and 250 students supported proposal B.
- Among the 200 students who preferred Sunita as student union president, 80% supported proposal A.
- Among those who preferred Ragini, 30% supported proposal A.
- 20% of those who supported proposal B preferred Sunita.
- 40% of those who did not support proposal B preferred Ragini.
- Every student who preferred Sunita and supported proposal B also supported proposal A.
- Among those who preferred Ragini, 20% did not support any of the proposals.
What percentage of the students surveyed who did not support proposal A preferred Ragini as student union president?
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
Students in a college are discussing two proposals –
A: a proposal by the authorities to introduce dress code on campus, and
B: a proposal by the students to allow multinational food franchises to set up outlets on college campus.
A student does not necessarily support either of the two proposals.
In an upcoming election for student union president, there are two candidates in fray: Sunita and Ragini. Every student prefers one of the two candidates.
A survey was conducted among the students by picking a sample of 500 students. The following information was noted from this survey.
- 250 students supported proposal A and 250 students supported proposal B.
- Among the 200 students who preferred Sunita as student union president, 80% supported proposal A.
- Among those who preferred Ragini, 30% supported proposal A.
- 20% of those who supported proposal B preferred Sunita.
- 40% of those who did not support proposal B preferred Ragini.
- Every student who preferred Sunita and supported proposal B also supported proposal A.
- Among those who preferred Ragini, 20% did not support any of the proposals.
How many of the students surveyed supported proposal B, did not support proposal A and preferred Ragini as student union president?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
There are only four brands of entry level smartphones called Azra, Bysi, Cxqi, and Dipq in a country. Details about their market share, unit selling price, and profitability (defined as the profit as a percentage of the revenue) for the year 2016 are given in the table below:
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In 2017, sales volume of entry level smartphones grew by 40% as compared to that in 2016. Cxqi offered a 40% discount on its unit selling price in 2017, which resulted in a 15% increase in its market share. Each of the other three brands lost 5% market share. However, the profitability of Cxqi came down to half of its value in 2016. The unit selling prices of the other three brands and their profitability values remained the same in 2017 asthey were in 2016.
The brand that had the highest revenue in 2016 is:
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
There are only four brands of entry level smartphones called Azra, Bysi, Cxqi, and Dipq in a country. Details about their market share, unit selling price, and profitability (defined as the profit as a percentage of the revenue) for the year 2016 are given in the table below:
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In 2017, sales volume of entry level smartphones grew by 40% as compared to that in 2016. Cxqi offered a 40% discount on its unit selling price in 2017, which resulted in a 15% increase in its market share. Each of the other three brands lost 5% market share. However, the profitability of Cxqi came down to half of its value in 2016. The unit selling prices of the other three brands and their profitability values remained the same in 2017 asthey were in 2016.
The brand that had the highest profit in 2016 is:
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
There are only four brands of entry level smartphones called Azra, Bysi, Cxqi, and Dipq in a country. Details about their market share, unit selling price, and profitability (defined as the profit as a percentage of the revenue) for the year 2016 are given in the table below:
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In 2017, sales volume of entry level smartphones grew by 40% as compared to that in 2016. Cxqi offered a 40% discount on its unit selling price in 2017, which resulted in a 15% increase in its market share. Each of the other three brands lost 5% market share. However, the profitability of Cxqi came down to half of its value in 2016. The unit selling prices of the other three brands and their profitability values remained the same in 2017 asthey were in 2016.
The brand that had the highest profit in 2017 is:
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
There are only four brands of entry level smartphones called Azra, Bysi, Cxqi, and Dipq in a country. Details about their market share, unit selling price, and profitability (defined as the profit as a percentage of the revenue) for the year 2016 are given in the table below:
âââââââ
In 2017, sales volume of entry level smartphones grew by 40% as compared to that in 2016. Cxqi offered a 40% discount on its unit selling price in 2017, which resulted in a 15% increase in its market share. Each of the other three brands lost 5% market share. However, the profitability of Cxqi came down to half of its value in 2016. The unit selling prices of the other three brands and their profitability values remained the same in 2017 asthey were in 2016.
The complete list of brands whose profits went up in 2017 from 2016 is:
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
A study to look at the early learning of rural kids was carried out in a number of villages spanning three states, chosen from the North East (NE), the West (W) and the South (S). 50 four-year old kids each were sampled from each of the 150 villages from NE, 250 villages from W and 200 villages from S. It was found that of the 30000 surveyed kids 55% studied in primary schools run by government (G), 37% in private schools (P) while the remaining 8% did not go to school (O).
The kids surveyed were further divided into two groups based on whether their mothers dropped out of school before completing primary education or not. The table below gives the number of kids in different types of schools for mothers who dropped out of school before completing primary education:
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It is also known that:
- In S, 60% of the surveyed kids were in G. Moreover, in S, all surveyed kids whose mothers had completed primary education were in school.
- In NE, among the O kids, 50% had mothers who had dropped out before completing primary education.
- The number of kids in G in NE was the same as the number of kids in G in W.
What percentage of kids from S were studying in P?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
A study to look at the early learning of rural kids was carried out in a number of villages spanning three states, chosen from the North East (NE), the West (W) and the South (S). 50 four-year old kids each were sampled from each of the 150 villages from NE, 250 villages from W and 200 villages from S. It was found that of the 30000 surveyed kids 55% studied in primary schools run by government (G), 37% in private schools (P) while the remaining 8% did not go to school (O).
The kids surveyed were further divided into two groups based on whether their mothers dropped out of school before completing primary education or not. The table below gives the number of kids in different types of schools for mothers who dropped out of school before completing primary education:
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It is also known that:
- In S, 60% of the surveyed kids were in G. Moreover, in S, all surveyed kids whose mothers had completed primary education were in school.
- In NE, among the O kids, 50% had mothers who had dropped out before completing primary education.
- The number of kids in G in NE was the same as the number of kids in G in W.
Among the kids in W whose mothers had complete primary education, how many were not in school?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
A study to look at the early learning of rural kids was carried out in a number of villages spanning three states, chosen from the North East (NE), the West (W) and the South (S). 50 four-year old kids each were sampled from each of the 150 villages from NE, 250 villages from W and 200 villages from S. It was found that of the 30000 surveyed kids 55% studied in primary schools run by government (G), 37% in private schools (P) while the remaining 8% did not go to school (O).
The kids surveyed were further divided into two groups based on whether their mothers dropped out of school before completing primary education or not. The table below gives the number of kids in different types of schools for mothers who dropped out of school before completing primary education:
âââââââ
It is also known that:
- In S, 60% of the surveyed kids were in G. Moreover, in S, all surveyed kids whose mothers had completed primary education were in school.
- In NE, among the O kids, 50% had mothers who had dropped out before completing primary education.
- The number of kids in G in NE was the same as the number of kids in G in W.
In a follow up survey of the same kids two years later, it was found that all the kids were now in school. Of the kids who were not in school earlier, in one region, 25% were in G now, whereas the rest were enrolled in P; in the second region, all such kids were in G now; while in the third region, 50% of such kids had now joined G while the rest had joined P. As a result, in all three regions put together, 50% of the kids who were earlier out of school had joined G. It was also seen that no surveyed kid had changed schools.
What number of the surveyed kids now were in G in W?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
A study to look at the early learning of rural kids was carried out in a number of villages spanning three states, chosen from the North East (NE), the West (W) and the South (S). 50 four-year old kids each were sampled from each of the 150 villages from NE, 250 villages from W and 200 villages from S. It was found that of the 30000 surveyed kids 55% studied in primary schools run by government (G), 37% in private schools (P) while the remaining 8% did not go to school (O).
The kids surveyed were further divided into two groups based on whether their mothers dropped out of school before completing primary education or not. The table below gives the number of kids in different types of schools for mothers who dropped out of school before completing primary education:
âââââââ
It is also known that:
- In S, 60% of the surveyed kids were in G. Moreover, in S, all surveyed kids whose mothers had completed primary education were in school.
- In NE, among the O kids, 50% had mothers who had dropped out before completing primary education.
- The number of kids in G in NE was the same as the number of kids in G in W.
In a follow up survey of the same kids two years later, it was found that all the kids were now in school. Of the kids who were not in school earlier, in one region, 25% were in G now, whereas the rest were enrolled in P; in the second region, all such kids were in G now; while in the third region, 50% of such kids had now joined G while the rest had joined P. As a result, in all three regions put together, 50% of the kids who were earlier out of school had joined G. It was also seen that no surveyed kid had changed schools.
What percentage of the surveyed kids in S, whose mothers had dropped out before completing primary education, were in G now?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The proportion of male students and the proportion of vegetarian students in a school are given below. The school has a total of 800 students, 80% of whom are in the Secondary Section and rest equally divided between Class 11 and 12.
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What is the percentage of vegetarian students in Class 12?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The proportion of male students and the proportion of vegetarian students in a school are given below. The school has a total of 800 students, 80% of whom are in the Secondary Section and rest equally divided between Class 11 and 12.
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In Class 12, twenty five per cent of the vegetarians are male. What is the difference between the number of female vegetarians and male non-vegetarians?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The proportion of male students and the proportion of vegetarian students in a school are given below. The school has a total of 800 students, 80% of whom are in the Secondary Section and rest equally divided between Class 11 and 12.
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What is the percentage of male students in the secondary section?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The proportion of male students and the proportion of vegetarian students in a school are given below. The school has a total of 800 students, 80% of whom are in the Secondary Section and rest equally divided between Class 11 and 12.
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In the Secondary Section, 50% of the students are vegetarian males. Which of the following statements is correct?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The following table shows the break-up of actual costs incurred by a company in last five years (year 2002 to year 2006) to produce a particular product.
The production capacity of the company is 2000 units. The selling price for the year 2006 was Rs. 125 per unit. Some costs change almost in direct proportion to the change in volume of production, while others do not follow any obvious pattern of change with respect to the volume of production and hence are considered fixed. Using the information provided for the year 2006 as the basis for projecting the figures for the year 2007, answer the following questions.
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What is the approximate cost per unit in rupees, if the company produces and sells 1400 units in the year 2007?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The following table shows the break-up of actual costs incurred by a company in last five years (year 2002 to year 2006) to produce a particular product.
The production capacity of the company is 2000 units. The selling price for the year 2006 was Rs. 125 per unit. Some costs change almost in direct proportion to the change in volume of production, while others do not follow any obvious pattern of change with respect to the volume of production and hence are considered fixed. Using the information provided for the year 2006 as the basis for projecting the figures for the year 2007, answer the following questions.
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What is the minimum number of units that the company needs to produce and sell to avoid any loss?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The following table shows the break-up of actual costs incurred by a company in last five years (year 2002 to year 2006) to produce a particular product.
The production capacity of the company is 2000 units. The selling price for the year 2006 was Rs. 125 per unit. Some costs change almost in direct proportion to the change in volume of production, while others do not follow any obvious pattern of change with respect to the volume of production and hence are considered fixed. Using the information provided for the year 2006 as the basis for projecting the figures for the year 2007, answer the following questions.
âââââââ
Given that the company cannot sell more than 1700 units, and it will have to reduce the price by Rs. 5 for all units, if it wants to sell more than 1400 units, what is the maximum profit, in rupees, that the company can earn?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The following table shows the break-up of actual costs incurred by a company in last five years (year 2002 to year 2006) to produce a particular product.
The production capacity of the company is 2000 units. The selling price for the year 2006 was Rs. 125 per unit. Some costs change almost in direct proportion to the change in volume of production, while others do not follow any obvious pattern of change with respect to the volume of production and hence are considered fixed. Using the information provided for the year 2006 as the basis for projecting the figures for the year 2007, answer the following questions.
âââââââ
If the company reduces the price by 5%, it can produce and sell as many units as it desires. How many units the company should produce to maximize its profit?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The table below shows the comparative costs, in US Dollars, of major surgeries in USA and a select few Asian countries.
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The equivalent of one US Dollar in the local currencies is given below.
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A consulting firm found that the quality of the health services were not the same in all the countries above. A poor quality of a surgery may have significant repercussions in future, resulting in more cost in correcting mistakes. The cost of poor quality of surgery is given in the table below.
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The rupee value increases to Rs. 35 for a US Dollar, and all other things including quality, remain the same. What is the approximate difference in cost, in US Dollars, between Singapore and India for a Spinal Fusion, taking this change into account?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The table below shows the comparative costs, in US Dollars, of major surgeries in USA and a select few Asian countries.
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The equivalent of one US Dollar in the local currencies is given below.
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A consulting firm found that the quality of the health services were not the same in all the countries above. A poor quality of a surgery may have significant repercussions in future, resulting in more cost in correcting mistakes. The cost of poor quality of surgery is given in the table below.
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Approximately, what difference in amount in Bahts will it make to a Thai citizen if she were to get a hysterectomy done in India instead of in her native country, taking into account the cost of poor quality? It costs 7500 Bahts for one-way travel between Thailand and India.
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The table below shows the comparative costs, in US Dollars, of major surgeries in USA and a select few Asian countries.
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The equivalent of one US Dollar in the local currencies is given below.
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A consulting firm found that the quality of the health services were not the same in all the countries above. A poor quality of a surgery may have significant repercussions in future, resulting in more cost in correcting mistakes. The cost of poor quality of surgery is given in the table below.
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A US citizen is hurt in an accident and requires an angioplasty, hip replacement and a knee replacement. Cost of foreign travel and stay is not a consideration since the government will take care of it. Which country will result in the cheapest package, taking cost of poor quality into account?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The table below shows the comparative costs, in US Dollars, of major surgeries in USA and a select few Asian countries.
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The equivalent of one US Dollar in the local currencies is given below.
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A consulting firm found that the quality of the health services were not the same in all the countries above. A poor quality of a surgery may have significant repercussions in future, resulting in more cost in correcting mistakes. The cost of poor quality of surgery is given in the table below.
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Taking the cost of poor quality into account, which country/countries will be the most expensive for knee replacement?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
A health-drink company’s R&D department is trying to make various diet formulations, which can be used for certain specific purposes. It is considering a choice of 5 alternative ingredients (O, P, Q, R, and S), which can be used in different proportions in the formulations. The table below gives the composition of these ingredients. The cost per unit of each of these ingredients is O: 150, P: 50, Q: 200, R: 500, S: 100.
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The company is planning to launch a balanced diet required for growth needs of adolescent children. This diet must contain at least 30% each of carbohydrate and protein, no more than 25% fat and at least 5% minerals. Which one of the following combinations of equally mixed ingredients is feasible?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
A health-drink company’s R&D department is trying to make various diet formulations, which can be used for certain specific purposes. It is considering a choice of 5 alternative ingredients (O, P, Q, R, and S), which can be used in different proportions in the formulations. The table below gives the composition of these ingredients. The cost per unit of each of these ingredients is O: 150, P: 50, Q: 200, R: 500, S: 100.
âââââââ
For a recuperating patient, the doctor recommended a diet containing 10% minerals and at least 30% protein. In how many different ways can we prepare this diet by mixing at least two ingredients?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
A health-drink company’s R&D department is trying to make various diet formulations, which can be used for certain specific purposes. It is considering a choice of 5 alternative ingredients (O, P, Q, R, and S), which can be used in different proportions in the formulations. The table below gives the composition of these ingredients. The cost per unit of each of these ingredients is O: 150, P: 50, Q: 200, R: 500, S: 100.
âââââââ
Which among the following is the formulation having the lowest cost per unit for a diet having 10% fat and at least 30% protein? The diet has to be formed by mixing two ingredients.
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
A health-drink company’s R&D department is trying to make various diet formulations, which can be used for certain specific purposes. It is considering a choice of 5 alternative ingredients (O, P, Q, R, and S), which can be used in different proportions in the formulations. The table below gives the composition of these ingredients. The cost per unit of each of these ingredients is O: 150, P: 50, Q: 200, R: 500, S: 100.
âââââââ
In what proportion should P, Q and S be mixed to make a diet having at least 60% carbohydrate at the lowest per unit cost?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
In a Class X Board examination, ten papers are distributed over five Groups – PCB, Mathematics, Social Science, Vernacular and English. Each of the ten papers is evaluated out of 100. The final score of a student is calculated in the following manner. First, the Group Scores are obtained by averaging marks in the papers within the Group. The final score is the simple average of the Group Scores. The data for the top ten students are presented below. (Dipan’s score in English Paper II has been intentionally removed in the table).
Note: B or G against the name of a student respectively indicates whether the student is a boy or a girl.
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How much did Dipan get in English Paper II?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
In a Class X Board examination, ten papers are distributed over five Groups – PCB, Mathematics, Social Science, Vernacular and English. Each of the ten papers is evaluated out of 100. The final score of a student is calculated in the following manner. First, the Group Scores are obtained by averaging marks in the papers within the Group. The final score is the simple average of the Group Scores. The data for the top ten students are presented below. (Dipan’s score in English Paper II has been intentionally removed in the table).
Note: B or G against the name of a student respectively indicates whether the student is a boy or a girl.
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Students who obtained Group Scores of at least 95 in every group are eligible to apply for a prize. Among those who are eligible, the student obtaining the highest Group Score in Social Science Group is awarded this prize. The prize was awarded to:
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
In a Class X Board examination, ten papers are distributed over five Groups – PCB, Mathematics, Social Science, Vernacular and English. Each of the ten papers is evaluated out of 100. The final score of a student is calculated in the following manner. First, the Group Scores are obtained by averaging marks in the papers within the Group. The final score is the simple average of the Group Scores. The data for the top ten students are presented below. (Dipan’s score in English Paper II has been intentionally removed in the table).
Note: B or G against the name of a student respectively indicates whether the student is a boy or a girl.
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Among the top ten students, how many boys scored at least 95 in at least one paper from each of the groups?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
In a Class X Board examination, ten papers are distributed over five Groups – PCB, Mathematics, Social Science, Vernacular and English. Each of the ten papers is evaluated out of 100. The final score of a student is calculated in the following manner. First, the Group Scores are obtained by averaging marks in the papers within the Group. The final score is the simple average of the Group Scores. The data for the top ten students are presented below. (Dipan’s score in English Paper II has been intentionally removed in the table).
Note: B or G against the name of a student respectively indicates whether the student is a boy or a girl.
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Each of the ten students was allowed to improve his/her score in exactly one paper of choice with the objective of maximizing his/her final score. Everyone scored 100 in the paper in which he or she chose to improve. After that, the topper among the ten students was:
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
In a Class X Board examination, ten papers are distributed over five Groups – PCB, Mathematics, Social Science, Vernacular and English. Each of the ten papers is evaluated out of 100. The final score of a student is calculated in the following manner. First, the Group Scores are obtained by averaging marks in the papers within the Group. The final score is the simple average of the Group Scores. The data for the top ten students are presented below. (Dipan’s score in English Paper II has been intentionally removed in the table).
Note: B or G against the name of a student respectively indicates whether the student is a boy or a girl.
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Had Joseph, Agni, Pritam and Tirna each obtained Group Score of 100 in the Social Science Group, then their standing in decreasing order of final score would be:
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The table below reports annual statistics related to rice production in select states of India for a particular year.
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Which two states account for the highest productivity of rice (tons produced per hectare of rice cultivation)?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The table below reports annual statistics related to rice production in select states of India for a particular year.
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How many states have a per capita production of rice (defined as total rice production divided by its population) greater than Gujarat?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The table below reports annual statistics related to rice production in select states of India for a particular year.
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An intensive rice producing state is defined as one whose annual rice production per million of population is at least 400,000 tons. How many states are intensive rice producing states?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The table below presents the revenue (in million rupees) of four firms in three states. These firms, Honest Ltd., Aggressive Ltd., Truthful Ltd. and Profitable Ltd. are disguised in the table as A, B, C and D, in no particular order.
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Further, it is known that:
- In the state of MP, Truthful Ltd. has the highest market share.
- Aggressive Ltd.’s aggregate revenue differs from Honest Ltd.’s by Rs. 5 million.
What can be said regarding the following two statements?
Statement 1: Profitable Ltd. has the lowest share in MP market.
Statement 2: Honest Ltd.’s total revenue is more than Profitable Ltd.
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The table below presents the revenue (in million rupees) of four firms in three states. These firms, Honest Ltd., Aggressive Ltd., Truthful Ltd. and Profitable Ltd. are disguised in the table as A, B, C and D, in no particular order.
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Further, it is known that:
- In the state of MP, Truthful Ltd. has the highest market share.
- Aggressive Ltd.’s aggregate revenue differs from Honest Ltd.’s by Rs. 5 million.
What can be said regarding the following two statements?
Statement 1: Aggressive Ltd.’s lowest revenues are from MP.
Statement 2: Honest Ltd.’s lowest revenues are from Bihar.
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The table below presents the revenue (in million rupees) of four firms in three states. These firms, Honest Ltd., Aggressive Ltd., Truthful Ltd. and Profitable Ltd. are disguised in the table as A, B, C and D, in no particular order.
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Further, it is known that:
- In the state of MP, Truthful Ltd. has the highest market share.
- Aggressive Ltd.’s aggregate revenue differs from Honest Ltd.’s by Rs. 5 million.
What can be said regarding the following two statements?
Statement 1: Honest Ltd. has the highest share in the UP market.
Statement 2: Aggressive Ltd. has the highest share in the Bihar market.
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The table below presents the revenue (in million rupees) of four firms in three states. These firms, Honest Ltd., Aggressive Ltd., Truthful Ltd. and Profitable Ltd. are disguised in the table as A, B, C and D, in no particular order.
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Further, it is known that:
- In the state of MP, Truthful Ltd. has the highest market share.
- Aggressive Ltd.’s aggregate revenue differs from Honest Ltd.’s by Rs. 5 million.
If Profitable Ltd.’s lowest revenue is from UP, then which of the following is true?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Prof. Singh has been tracking the number of visitors to his homepage. His service provider has provided him with the following data on the country of origin of the visitors and the university they belong to:
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University 1 can belong to ______.
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Prof. Singh has been tracking the number of visitors to his homepage. His service provider has provided him with the following data on the country of origin of the visitors and the university they belong to:
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To which country does University 5 belong?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Prof. Singh has been tracking the number of visitors to his homepage. His service provider has provided him with the following data on the country of origin of the visitors and the university they belong to:
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Visitors from how many universities from UK visited Prof. Singh’s homepage in the three days?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Prof. Singh has been tracking the number of visitors to his homepage. His service provider has provided him with the following data on the country of origin of the visitors and the university they belong to:
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Which among the listed countries can possibly host three of the eight listed universities?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The Dean’s office recently scanned student results into the central computer system. When their character reading software cannot read something, it leaves the space blank. The scanner output reads as follows:
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In the grading system, A, B, C, D, and F grades fetch 6, 4, 3, 2, and 0 grade points respectively. The Grade Point Average (GPA) is the arithmetic mean of the grade points obtained in the five subjects.
For example Nisha's GPA is 3.6
Some additional facts are also known about the students’ grades. These are:
a. Vipul obtained the same grade in Marketing as Aparna obtained in Finance and Strategy.
b. Fazal obtained the same grade in Strategy as Utkarsh did in Marketing.
c. Tara received the same grade in exactly three courses.
In Strategy, Gowri’s grade point was higher than that obtained by _________.
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Purana and Naya are two brands of kitchen mixer-grinders available in the local market. Purana is an old brand that was introduced in 1990, while Naya was introduced in 1997. For both these brands, 20% of the mixer-grinders bought in a particular year are disposed off as junk exactly two years later. It is known that 10 Purana mixer-grinders were disposed off in 1997. The following figures show the number of Purana and Naya mixer-grinders in operation from 1995 to 2000, as at the end of the year.

How many Naya mixer-grinders were disposed of by the end of 2000?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Purana and Naya are two brands of kitchen mixer-grinders available in the local market. Purana is an old brand that was introduced in 1990, while Naya was introduced in 1997. For both these brands, 20% of the mixer-grinders bought in a particular year are disposed off as junk exactly two years later. It is known that 10 Purana mixer-grinders were disposed off in 1997. The following figures show the number of Purana and Naya mixer-grinders in operation from 1995 to 2000, as at the end of the year.

How many Naya mixer-grinders were purchased in 1999?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Purana and Naya are two brands of kitchen mixer-grinders available in the local market. Purana is an old brand that was introduced in 1990, while Naya was introduced in 1997. For both these brands, 20% of the mixer-grinders bought in a particular year are disposed off as junk exactly two years later. It is known that 10 Purana mixer-grinders were disposed off in 1997. The following figures show the number of Purana and Naya mixer-grinders in operation from 1995 to 2000, as at the end of the year.

How many Purana mixer-grinders were purchased in 1999?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Purana and Naya are two brands of kitchen mixer-grinders available in the local market. Purana is an old brand that was introduced in 1990, while Naya was introduced in 1997. For both these brands, 20% of the mixer-grinders bought in a particular year are disposed off as junk exactly two years later. It is known that 10 Purana mixer-grinders were disposed off in 1997. The following figures show the number of Purana and Naya mixer-grinders in operation from 1995 to 2000, as at the end of the year.

How many Purana mixer-grinders were disposed of in 2000?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Twenty one participants from four continents (Africa, Americas, Australasia, and Europe) attended a United Nations conference. Each participant was an expert in one of four fields, labour, health, population studies, and refugee relocation. The following five facts about the participants are given.
a. The number of labour experts in the camp was exactly half the number of experts in each of the three other categories.
b. Africa did not send any labour expert. Otherwise, every continent, including Africa, sent at least one expert for each category.
c. None of the continents sent more than three experts in any category.
d. If there had been one less Australasian expert, then the Americas would have had twice as many experts as each of the other continents.
e. Mike and Alfanso are leading experts of population studies who attended the conference. They are from Australasia.
Which of the following numbers cannot be determined from the information given?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Twenty one participants from four continents (Africa, Americas, Australasia, and Europe) attended a United Nations conference. Each participant was an expert in one of four fields, labour, health, population studies, and refugee relocation. The following five facts about the participants are given.
a. The number of labour experts in the camp was exactly half the number of experts in each of the three other categories.
b. Africa did not send any labour expert. Otherwise, every continent, including Africa, sent at least one expert for each category.
c. None of the continents sent more than three experts in any category.
d. If there had been one less Australasian expert, then the Americas would have had twice as many experts as each of the other continents.
e. Mike and Alfanso are leading experts of population studies who attended the conference. They are from Australasia.
Which of the following combinations is NOT possible?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Twenty one participants from four continents (Africa, Americas, Australasia, and Europe) attended a United Nations conference. Each participant was an expert in one of four fields, labour, health, population studies, and refugee relocation. The following five facts about the participants are given.
a. The number of labour experts in the camp was exactly half the number of experts in each of the three other categories.
b. Africa did not send any labour expert. Otherwise, every continent, including Africa, sent at least one expert for each category.
c. None of the continents sent more than three experts in any category.
d. If there had been one less Australasian expert, then the Americas would have had twice as many experts as each of the other continents.
e. Mike and Alfanso are leading experts of population studies who attended the conference. They are from Australasia.
If Ramos is the lone American expert in population studies, which of the following is NOT true about the numbers of experts in the conference from the four continents?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Twenty one participants from four continents (Africa, Americas, Australasia, and Europe) attended a United Nations conference. Each participant was an expert in one of four fields, labour, health, population studies, and refugee relocation. The following five facts about the participants are given.
a. The number of labour experts in the camp was exactly half the number of experts in each of the three other categories.
b. Africa did not send any labour expert. Otherwise, every continent, including Africa, sent at least one expert for each category.
c. None of the continents sent more than three experts in any category.
d. If there had been one less Australasian expert, then the Americas would have had twice as many experts as each of the other continents.
e. Mike and Alfanso are leading experts of population studies who attended the conference. They are from Australasia.
Alex, an American expert in refugee relocation, was the first keynote speaker in the conference. What can be inferred about the number of American experts in refugee relocation in the conference, excluding Alex?
i. At least one
ii. At most two
âââââââAnswer the following question based on the information given below.
A research agency collected the following data regarding the admission process of a reputed management school in India.
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âââââââChoose 1 if only A is true
Choose 2 if only B is true
Choose 3 if both A and B are true
Choose 4 if neither A nor B is true
Statement A: The success rate of moving from written test to interview stage for males was worse than for females in 2003.
Statement B: The success rate of moving from written test to interview stage for females was better in 2002 than in 2003.
âââââââAnswer the following question based on the information given below.
A research agency collected the following data regarding the admission process of a reputed management school in India.
âââââââ
âââââââChoose 1 if only A is true
Choose 2 if only B is true
Choose 3 if both A and B are true
Choose 4 if neither A nor B is true
Statement A: In 2002, the number of females selected for the course as a proportion of the number of females who bought application forms, was higher than the corresponding proportion for males.
Statement B: In 2002, among those called for interview, males had a greater success rate than females.
âââââââAnswer the following question based on the information given below.
A research agency collected the following data regarding the admission process of a reputed management school in India.
âââââââ
âââââââChoose 1 if only A is true
Choose 2 if only B is true
Choose 3 if both A and B are true
Choose 4 if neither A nor B is true
Statement A: The percentage of absentees in the written test among females decreased from 2002 to 2003.
Statement B: The percentage of absentees in the written test among males was larger than among females in 2003.
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The table below provides certain demographic details of 30 respondents who were part of a survey. The demographic characteristics are: gender, number of children and age of respondents. The first number in each cell is the number of respondents in that group. The minimum and maximum age of respondents in each group is given in brackets. For example, there are five female respondents with no children and among these five, the youngest is 34 years old, while the oldest is 49.
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The percentage of respondents aged less than 40 years is at least ___.
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The table below provides certain demographic details of 30 respondents who were part of a survey. The demographic characteristics are: gender, number of children and age of respondents. The first number in each cell is the number of respondents in that group. The minimum and maximum age of respondents in each group is given in brackets. For example, there are five female respondents with no children and among these five, the youngest is 34 years old, while the oldest is 49.
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Given the information above, the percentage of respondents older than 35 can be at most ___.
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The table below provides certain demographic details of 30 respondents who were part of a survey. The demographic characteristics are: gender, number of children and age of respondents. The first number in each cell is the number of respondents in that group. The minimum and maximum age of respondents in each group is given in brackets. For example, there are five female respondents with no children and among these five, the youngest is 34 years old, while the oldest is 49.
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The percentage of respondents that fall into the 35 to 40 years age group (both inclusive) is at least ___.
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Spam that enters our electronic mailboxes can be classified under several spam heads. The following table shows the distribution of such spam worldwide over time. The total number of spam emails received during December 2002 was larger than the number received in June 2003. The total number of spam emails received during September 2002 was larger than the number received in March 2003. The figures in the table represent the percentage of all spam emails received during that period, falling into those respective categories.
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In which category was the percentage of spam emails increasing but at a decreasing rate?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Spam that enters our electronic mailboxes can be classified under several spam heads. The following table shows the distribution of such spam worldwide over time. The total number of spam emails received during December 2002 was larger than the number received in June 2003. The total number of spam emails received during September 2002 was larger than the number received in March 2003. The figures in the table represent the percentage of all spam emails received during that period, falling into those respective categories.
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In the health category, the number of spam emails received in December 2002 as compared to June 2003
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Spam that enters our electronic mailboxes can be classified under several spam heads. The following table shows the distribution of such spam worldwide over time. The total number of spam emails received during December 2002 was larger than the number received in June 2003. The total number of spam emails received during September 2002 was larger than the number received in March 2003. The figures in the table represent the percentage of all spam emails received during that period, falling into those respective categories.
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In the financial category, the number of spam emails received in September 2002 as compared to March 2003
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
One of the functions of the Reserve Bank of India is to mobilize funds for the Government of India by issuing securities. The following table shows details of funds mobilized during the period July 2002-July 2003. Notice that on each date there were two rounds of issues, each with a different maturity.
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How many times was the issue of securities under-subscribed, i.e., how often did the total amount mobilized fall short of the amount notified?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
One of the functions of the Reserve Bank of India is to mobilize funds for the Government of India by issuing securities. The following table shows details of funds mobilized during the period July 2002-July 2003. Notice that on each date there were two rounds of issues, each with a different maturity.
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Which of the following is true?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
One of the functions of the Reserve Bank of India is to mobilize funds for the Government of India by issuing securities. The following table shows details of funds mobilized during the period July 2002-July 2003. Notice that on each date there were two rounds of issues, each with a different maturity.
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Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Details of the top 20 MBA schools in the US as ranked by US News and World Report, 1997 are given below.
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Madhu has received admission in all schools listed above. She wishes to select the highest overall ranked school whose
A. Annual tuition fee does not exceed $23,000 and
B. Median starting salary is at least $70,000Which school will she select?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Details of the top 20 MBA schools in the US as ranked by US News and World Report, 1997 are given below.
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In terms of starting salary and tuition fee, how many schools are uniformly better (higher median starting salary AND lower tuition fee) than Dartmouth College?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Details of the top 20 MBA schools in the US as ranked by US News and World Report, 1997 are given below.
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How many schools in the list above have single digit rankings on at least 3 of the 4 parameters (overall ranking, ranking by academics, ranking by recruiters and ranking by placement)?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Table A below provides data about ages of children in a school. For the age given in the first column, the second column gives the number of children not exceeding that age. For example, first entry indicates that there are 9 children aged 4 years or less. Tables B and C provide data on the heights and weights respectively of the same group of children in a similar format. Assuming that an older child is always taller and weighs more than a younger child, answer the following questions.
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What is the number of children of age 9 years or less whose height does not exceed 135 cm?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Table A below provides data about ages of children in a school. For the age given in the first column, the second column gives the number of children not exceeding that age. For example, first entry indicates that there are 9 children aged 4 years or less. Tables B and C provide data on the heights and weights respectively of the same group of children in a similar format. Assuming that an older child is always taller and weighs more than a younger child, answer the following questions.
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How many children of age more than 10 years are taller than 150 cm and do not weigh more than 48 kg?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Table A below provides data about ages of children in a school. For the age given in the first column, the second column gives the number of children not exceeding that age. For example, first entry indicates that there are 9 children aged 4 years or less. Tables B and C provide data on the heights and weights respectively of the same group of children in a similar format. Assuming that an older child is always taller and weighs more than a younger child, answer the following questions.
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Among the children older than 6 years but not exceeding 12 years, how many weigh more than 38 kg?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
An industry comprises four firms (A, B, C, and D). Financial details of these firms and of the industry as a whole for a particular year are given below. Profitability of a firm is defined as profit as a percentage of sales.
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Which firm has the highest profitability?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
An industry comprises four firms (A, B, C, and D). Financial details of these firms and of the industry as a whole for a particular year are given below. Profitability of a firm is defined as profit as a percentage of sales.
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If Firm A acquires Firm B, approximately what percentage of the total market (total sales) will they corner together?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Five women decided to go shopping to M.G. Road, Bangalore. They arrived at the designated meeting place in the following order: 1. Archana, 2. Chellamma, 3. Dhenuka, 4. Helen, and 5. Shahnaz. Each woman spent at least Rs. 1000. Below are some additional facts about how much they spent during their shopping spree.
i. The woman who spent Rs. 2234 arrived before the lady who spent Rs. 1193.
ii. One woman spent Rs. 1340 and she was not Dhenuka.
iii. One woman spent Rs. 1378 more than Chellamma.
iv. One woman spent Rs. 2517 and she was not Archana.
v. Helen spent more than Dhenuka.
vi. Shahnaz spent the largest amount and Chellamma the smallest.
What was the amount spent by Helen?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Five women decided to go shopping to M.G. Road, Bangalore. They arrived at the designated meeting place in the following order: 1. Archana, 2. Chellamma, 3. Dhenuka, 4. Helen, and 5. Shahnaz. Each woman spent at least Rs. 1000. Below are some additional facts about how much they spent during their shopping spree.
i. The woman who spent Rs. 2234 arrived before the lady who spent Rs. 1193.
ii. One woman spent Rs. 1340 and she was not Dhenuka.
iii. One woman spent Rs. 1378 more than Chellamma.
iv. One woman spent Rs. 2517 and she was not Archana.
v. Helen spent more than Dhenuka.
vi. Shahnaz spent the largest amount and Chellamma the smallest.
Which of the following amounts was spent by one of them?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Five women decided to go shopping to M.G. Road, Bangalore. They arrived at the designated meeting place in the following order: 1. Archana, 2. Chellamma, 3. Dhenuka, 4. Helen, and 5. Shahnaz. Each woman spent at least Rs. 1000. Below are some additional facts about how much they spent during their shopping spree.
i. The woman who spent Rs. 2234 arrived before the lady who spent Rs. 1193.
ii. One woman spent Rs. 1340 and she was not Dhenuka.
iii. One woman spent Rs. 1378 more than Chellamma.
iv. One woman spent Rs. 2517 and she was not Archana.
v. Helen spent more than Dhenuka.
vi. Shahnaz spent the largest amount and Chellamma the smallest.
The woman who spent Rs. 1193 is
âââââââAnswer the following question based on the information given below.
Below is a table that lists countries region-wise. Each region-wise list is sorted, first by birth rate and then alphabetically by the name of the country. We now wish to merge the region-wise list into one consolidated list and provide overall rankings to each country based first on birth rate and then on death rate. Thus, if some countries have the same birth rate, then the country with a lower death rate will be ranked higher. Further, countries having identical birth and death rates will get the same rank. For example, if two countries are tied for the third position, then both will be given rank 3, while the next country (in the ordered list) will be ranked 5.
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In the consolidated list, what would be the overall rank of the Philippines?
âââââââAnswer the following question based on the information given below.
Below is a table that lists countries region-wise. Each region-wise list is sorted, first by birth rate and then alphabetically by the name of the country. We now wish to merge the region-wise list into one consolidated list and provide overall rankings to each country based first on birth rate and then on death rate. Thus, if some countries have the same birth rate, then the country with a lower death rate will be ranked higher. Further, countries having identical birth and death rates will get the same rank. For example, if two countries are tied for the third position, then both will be given rank 3, while the next country (in the ordered list) will be ranked 5.
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In the consolidated list, how many countries would rank below Spain and above Taiwan?
âââââââAnswer the following question based on the information given below.
Below is a table that lists countries region-wise. Each region-wise list is sorted, first by birth rate and then alphabetically by the name of the country. We now wish to merge the region-wise list into one consolidated list and provide overall rankings to each country based first on birth rate and then on death rate. Thus, if some countries have the same birth rate, then the country with a lower death rate will be ranked higher. Further, countries having identical birth and death rates will get the same rank. For example, if two countries are tied for the third position, then both will be given rank 3, while the next country (in the ordered list) will be ranked 5.
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In the consolidated list, which country ranks 37th?
âââââââAnswer the following question based on the information given below.
Below is a table that lists countries region-wise. Each region-wise list is sorted, first by birth rate and then alphabetically by the name of the country. We now wish to merge the region-wise list into one consolidated list and provide overall rankings to each country based first on birth rate and then on death rate. Thus, if some countries have the same birth rate, then the country with a lower death rate will be ranked higher. Further, countries having identical birth and death rates will get the same rank. For example, if two countries are tied for the third position, then both will be given rank 3, while the next country (in the ordered list) will be ranked 5.
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In the consolidated list, how many countries in Asia will rank lower than every country in South America, but higher than at least one country in Africa?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The following is the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) of a select list of items with the base year of 1993-94. In other words, all the item prices are made 100 in that year (1993-94). Price in all other years for an item are measured with respect to its price in the base year. For instance, the price of cement went up by 1% in 1994-95 as compared to 1993-94. Similarly, the price of power went up by 3% in 1996–97 as compared to 1993-94.
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Let us suppose that one bag of cement (50 kgs) consumes 100 kgs of limestones and 10 units of power. The only other cost item in producing cement is in the form of wages. During 1993-94, limestone, power and wages contribute, respectively, 20%, 25%, and 15% to the cement price per bag. The average operating profit (% of price per cement bag) earned by a cement manufacturer during 2002-03 is closest to
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The following is the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) of a select list of items with the base year of 1993-94. In other words, all the item prices are made 100 in that year (1993-94). Price in all other years for an item are measured with respect to its price in the base year. For instance, the price of cement went up by 1% in 1994-95 as compared to 1993-94. Similarly, the price of power went up by 3% in 1996–97 as compared to 1993-94.
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Steel manufacturing requires the use of iron ore, power and manpower. The cost of iron ore has followed the All Item index. During 1993-94 power accounted for 30% of the selling price of steel, iron ore for 25%, and wages for 10% of the selling price of steel. Assuming the cost and price data for cement as given in the previous question, the operating profit (% of selling price) of an average steel manufacture in 2002-03
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The following is the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) of a select list of items with the base year of 1993-94. In other words, all the item prices are made 100 in that year (1993-94). Price in all other years for an item are measured with respect to its price in the base year. For instance, the price of cement went up by 1% in 1994-95 as compared to 1993-94. Similarly, the price of power went up by 3% in 1996–97 as compared to 1993-94.
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Which item experienced continuous price rise during the ten-year period?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The following is the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) of a select list of items with the base year of 1993-94. In other words, all the item prices are made 100 in that year (1993-94). Price in all other years for an item are measured with respect to its price in the base year. For instance, the price of cement went up by 1% in 1994-95 as compared to 1993-94. Similarly, the price of power went up by 3% in 1996–97 as compared to 1993-94.
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Which item(s) experienced only one decline in price during the ten-year period?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Sex Ratio (Number of females per 1,000 males) of Selected States in India : 1901-2001
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Each of the following statements pertains to the number of states with females outnumbering males in a given census year. Which of these statements is NOT correct?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Sex Ratio (Number of females per 1,000 males) of Selected States in India : 1901-2001
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The two states which achieved the largest increases in sex ratio over the period 1901-2001 are
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Sex Ratio (Number of females per 1,000 males) of Selected States in India : 1901-2001
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Among the states which have a sex ratio exceeding 1000 in 1901, the sharpest decline over the period 1901-2001 was registered in the state of
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Answer these questions based on the table given below.
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What percentage of cities located within 10° E and 40° E (10° east and 40° east) lie in the Southern Hemisphere?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Answer these questions based on the table given below.
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The number of cities whose name begin with a consonant and are in the Northern Hemisphere in the table:
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Answer these questions based on the table given below.
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The ratio of the number of countries whose name starts with vowel and located in the Southern Hemisphere, to the number of countries, the name of whose capital cities starts with a vowel in the table above is:
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The following table shows the earnings of employees in the month of June 2002. They generally worked 25 days in a month.
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The number of employees who have earned more than Rs. 50 per day in complex operation is:
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The following table shows the earnings of employees in the month of June 2002. They generally worked 25 days in a month.
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The number of employees who have earned more than Rs. 600 and having more than 80% attendance (there are 25 regular working days in June 2002; some might be coming on overtime too) is:
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The following table shows the earnings of employees in the month of June 2002. They generally worked 25 days in a month.
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The employee number of the person (among the following) who has earned the maximum earnings per day in medium operations is:
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The following table shows the earnings of employees in the month of June 2002. They generally worked 25 days in a month.
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Among the employees who were engaged in complex and medium operations, the number of employees whose average earnings per day in complex operations is more than their average earnings per day in medium operations is:
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Following table shows the REPSOL YPF's Operations of oil and gas producing activities.
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How many operations (Spain, North Africa and Middle East, …) of the company account for less than 5% of the total revenue earned in the year 1999?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Following table shows the REPSOL YPF's Operations of oil and gas producing activities.
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How many operations (Spain, North Africa and Middle East, …) of the company account for less than 5% of the total revenue earned in the year 1999 to 2000?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Following table shows the REPSOL YPF's Operations of oil and gas producing activities.
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How many operations registered a sustained yearly increase in income before taxes and charges from 1998 to 2000?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Following table shows the REPSOL YPF's Operations of oil and gas producing activities.
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Ignoring the loss making operations of the company in 1998, for how many operations was the percentage increase in net income before taxes and charges higher than the average increase from 1998 to 1999?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Following table shows the REPSOL YPF's Operations of oil and gas producing activities.
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If profitability is defined as the ratio of net income after taxes and charges to expenses, then which of the following statements is true?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Following table shows the REPSOL YPF's Operations of oil and gas producing activities.
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In the year 2000, which among the following countries had the best profitability?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Following table shows the REPSOL YPF's Operations of oil and gas producing activities.
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If efficiency is defined as the ratio of revenue to expenses, then which operation was the least efficient in the year 2000?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Following table shows the REPSOL YPF's Operations of oil and gas producing activities.
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Of the following statements which is not true?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The following is a table describing garments manufactured based upon the colour and size each lay. There are four sizes: M-Medium, L-Large, XL-Extra Large and XXL-Extra Extra Large. There are three colours: Yellow, Red and White.
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How many lays are used to produce Yellow-coloured fabrics?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The following is a table describing garments manufactured based upon the colour and size each lay. There are four sizes: M-Medium, L-Large, XL-Extra Large and XXL-Extra Extra Large. There are three colours: Yellow, Red and White.
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How many lays are used to produce Extra-Extra Large fabrics?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The following is a table describing garments manufactured based upon the colour and size each lay. There are four sizes: M-Medium, L-Large, XL-Extra Large and XXL-Extra Extra Large. There are three colours: Yellow, Red and White.
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How many lays are used to produce Extra-Extra Large Yellow or Extra-Extra Large White fabrics?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The following is a table describing garments manufactured based upon the colour and size each lay. There are four sizes: M-Medium, L-Large, XL-Extra Large and XXL-Extra Extra Large. There are three colours: Yellow, Red and White.
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How many varieties of fabrics, which exceed the order have been produced?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Answer these questions based on the table given below concerning the twenty busiest international airports in the world.
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How many international airports of type 'A' account for more than 40 million passengers?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Answer these questions based on the table given below concerning the twenty busiest international airports in the world.
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What percentage of top ten busiest airports is in the United States of America?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Answer these questions based on the table given below concerning the twenty busiest international airports in the world.
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Of the five busiest airports, roughly what percentage of passengers is handled by Heathrow airport?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Answer these questions based on the table given below concerning the twenty busiest international airports in the world.
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How many international airports not located in the USA handle more than 30 million passengers?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Factory Sector by Type of Ownership.
All figures in the table are in percent of the total for the corresponding column.
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Suppose the average employment level is 60 per factory. The average employment in “wholly private” factories is approximately
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Factory Sector by Type of Ownership.
All figures in the table are in percent of the total for the corresponding column.
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Among the firms in different sectors, value added per employee is highest in
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Factory Sector by Type of Ownership.
All figures in the table are in percent of the total for the corresponding column.
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Capital productivity is defined as the gross output value per rupee of fixed capital. The three sectors with the higher capital productivity, arranged in descending order are
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Factory Sector by Type of Ownership.
All figures in the table are in percent of the total for the corresponding column.
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A sector is considered “pareto efficient” if its value added per employee and its value added per rupee of fixed capital is higher than those of all other sectors. Based on the table data, the pareto efficient sector is
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Factory Sector by Type of Ownership.
All figures in the table are in percent of the total for the corresponding column.
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The total value added in all sectors is estimated at Rs. 140,000 crores. Suppose that the number of firms in the joint sector is 2700. The average value added per factory, in Rs. crores, in the central government is
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The table shows trends in external transactions of Indian corporate sector during the period 1993-94 to 1997-98. In addition, following definitions hold good.
Salesi , Importsi, and Exportsi respectively denote the sales, imports and exports in year i.
Deficit in year i, Deficiti = Importsi – Exportsi.
Deficit Intensity in year i, DIi = Deficiti / Salesi.
Growth rate of deficit intensity in year i, GDIi = (DIi – DIi-1)/DIi-1
Further, note that all imports are classified as either raw material or capital goods.
Trends in External Transactions of Indian Corporate Sector (All figures in %)
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The value of the highest growth rate in deficit intensity is approximately
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The table shows trends in external transactions of Indian corporate sector during the period 1993-94 to 1997-98. In addition, following definitions hold good.
Salesi , Importsi, and Exportsi respectively denote the sales, imports and exports in year i.
Deficit in year i, Deficiti = Importsi – Exportsi.
Deficit Intensity in year i, DIi = Deficiti / Salesi.
Growth rate of deficit intensity in year i, GDIi = (DIi – DIi-1)/DIi-1
Further, note that all imports are classified as either raw material or capital goods.
Trends in External Transactions of Indian Corporate Sector (All figures in %)
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In 1997-98 the total cost of raw materials is estimated as 50% of sales of that year. The turn over of Gross fixed assets, defined as the ratio of sales to Gross fixed assets, in 1997-98 is, approximately
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The table shows trends in external transactions of Indian corporate sector during the period 1993-94 to 1997-98. In addition, following definitions hold good.
Salesi , Importsi, and Exportsi respectively denote the sales, imports and exports in year i.
Deficit in year i, Deficiti = Importsi – Exportsi.
Deficit Intensity in year i, DIi = Deficiti / Salesi.
Growth rate of deficit intensity in year i, GDIi = (DIi – DIi-1)/DIi-1
Further, note that all imports are classified as either raw material or capital goods.
Trends in External Transactions of Indian Corporate Sector (All figures in %)
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Which of the following statements can be inferred to be true from the given data?
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
The figures below present annual growth rate, expressed as the % change relative to the previous year, in four sectors of the economy of the Republic of Reposia during the 9 year period from 1990 to 1998. Assume that the index of production for each of the four sectors is set at 100 in 1989. Further, the four sectors manufacturing, mining and quarrying, electricity, and chemicals, respectively, constituted 20%. 15%. 10% and 15% of total industrial production in 1989.

It is known that the index of total industrial production in 1994 was 50 percent more that in 1989. Then, the percentage increase in production between 1989 and 1994 in sectors other than the four listed above is
Directions: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The table below presents data on percentage population covered by drinking water and sanitation facilities in selected Asian countries.
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Country A is said to dominate B or A > B if A has higher percentage in total coverage for both drinking water and sanitation facilities, and, B is said to be dominated by A, or B < A.
A country is said to be on the coverage frontier if no other country dominates it. Similarly, a country is not on the coverage frontier if it is dominated by at least one other country.
Which countries are the countries on the coverage frontier?
Directions: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The table below presents data on percentage population covered by drinking water and sanitation facilities in selected Asian countries.
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Country A is said to dominate B or A > B if A has higher percentage in total coverage for both drinking water and sanitation facilities, and, B is said to be dominated by A, or B < A.
A country is said to be on the coverage frontier if no other country dominates it. Similarly, a country is not on the coverage frontier if it is dominated by at least one other country.
Which of the following statements are true?
A. India > Pakistan and India > Indonesia
B. India > China and India > Nepal
C. Sri Lanka > China D. China > Nepal
Directions: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The table below presents data on percentage population covered by drinking water and sanitation facilities in selected Asian countries.
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Country A is said to dominate B or A > B if A has higher percentage in total coverage for both drinking water and sanitation facilities, and, B is said to be dominated by A, or B < A.
A country is said to be on the coverage frontier if no other country dominates it. Similarly, a country is not on the coverage frontier if it is dominated by at least one other country.
Using only the data presented under ‘sanitation facilities’ columns, it can be concluded that rural population in India, as a percentage of its total population is approximately
Directions: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The table below presents data on percentage population covered by drinking water and sanitation facilities in selected Asian countries.
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Country A is said to dominate B or A > B if A has higher percentage in total coverage for both drinking water and sanitation facilities, and, B is said to be dominated by A, or B < A.
A country is said to be on the coverage frontier if no other country dominates it. Similarly, a country is not on the coverage frontier if it is dominated by at least one other country.
Again, using only the data presented under ‘sanitation facilities’ columns, sequence China, Indonesia and Philippines in ascending order of rural population as a percentage of their respective total population. The correct order is
Directions: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The table below presents data on percentage population covered by drinking water and sanitation facilities in selected Asian countries.
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Country A is said to dominate B or A > B if A has higher percentage in total coverage for both drinking water and sanitation facilities, and, B is said to be dominated by A, or B < A.
A country is said to be on the coverage frontier if no other country dominates it. Similarly, a country is not on the coverage frontier if it is dominated by at least one other country.
India is not on the coverage frontier because
A. it is lower than Bangladesh in terms of coverage of drinking water facilities.
B. it is lower than Sri Lanka in terms of coverage of sanitation facilities.
C. it is lower than Pakistan in terms of coverage of sanitation facilities.
D. it is dominated by Indonesia.
Directions: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The table below presents data on percentage population covered by drinking water and sanitation facilities in selected Asian countries.
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Country A is said to dominate B or A > B if A has higher percentage in total coverage for both drinking water and sanitation facilities, and, B is said to be dominated by A, or B < A.
A country is said to be on the coverage frontier if no other country dominates it. Similarly, a country is not on the coverage frontier if it is dominated by at least one other country.
Additional direction: These relate to the above table with the additional provision that the gap between the population coverages of ‘sanitation facilities’ and ‘drinking water facilities’ is a measure of disparity in coverage.
The country with the most disparity in coverage of rural sector is
Directions: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The table below presents data on percentage population covered by drinking water and sanitation facilities in selected Asian countries.
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Country A is said to dominate B or A > B if A has higher percentage in total coverage for both drinking water and sanitation facilities, and, B is said to be dominated by A, or B < A.
A country is said to be on the coverage frontier if no other country dominates it. Similarly, a country is not on the coverage frontier if it is dominated by at least one other country.
Additional direction: These relate to the above table with the additional provision that the gap between the population coverages of ‘sanitation facilities’ and ‘drinking water facilities’ is a measure of disparity in coverage.
The country with the least disparity in coverage of urban sector is
Direction: The following table gives the quantity of apples (in tonnes) arriving at
New Delhi market from various states in a particular year. The month in which demand was more than supply, the additional demand was met by the stock from cold storage.
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What was the maximum percentage of apples supplied by any state in any of the months?
Direction: The following table gives the quantity of apples (in tonnes) arriving at
New Delhi market from various states in a particular year. The month in which demand was more than supply, the additional demand was met by the stock from cold storage.
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Which state supplied the maximum number of apples?
Direction: The following table gives the quantity of apples (in tonnes) arriving at
New Delhi market from various states in a particular year. The month in which demand was more than supply, the additional demand was met by the stock from cold storage.
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Which state supplied the highest percentage of apples from the total apples supplied?
Direction: The following table gives the quantity of apples (in tonnes) arriving at
New Delhi market from various states in a particular year. The month in which demand was more than supply, the additional demand was met by the stock from cold storage.
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In which of the following periods was the supply greater than the demand?
Direction: The following table gives the quantity of apples (in tonnes) arriving at
New Delhi market from various states in a particular year. The month in which demand was more than supply, the additional demand was met by the stock from cold storage.
âââââââ
If the yield per tree was 40 kg, then from how many trees were the apples supplied to New Delhi (in millions) during the year?
Direction: The following table gives the quantity of apples (in tonnes) arriving at
New Delhi market from various states in a particular year. The month in which demand was more than supply, the additional demand was met by the stock from cold storage.
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Using the data in previous question, if there were 250 trees per hectare, then how many hectares of land was used?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Krishna distributed 10-acre land to Gopal and Ram who paid him the total amount in the ratio 2 : 3. Gopal invested a further Rs. 2 lakh in the land and planted coconut and lemon trees in the ratio 5 : 1 on equal areas of land. There were a total of 100 lemon trees. The cost of one coconut was Rs. 5. The crop took 7 years to mature and when the crop was reaped in 1997, the total revenue generated was 25% of the total amount put in by Gopal and Ram together. The revenue generated from the coconut and lemon trees was in the ratio 3 : 2 and it was shared equally by Gopal and Ram as the initial amount spent by them were equal.
What was the total output of coconuts?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Krishna distributed 10-acre land to Gopal and Ram who paid him the total amount in the ratio 2 : 3. Gopal invested a further Rs. 2 lakh in the land and planted coconut and lemon trees in the ratio 5 : 1 on equal areas of land. There were a total of 100 lemon trees. The cost of one coconut was Rs. 5. The crop took 7 years to mature and when the crop was reaped in 1997, the total revenue generated was 25% of the total amount put in by Gopal and Ram together. The revenue generated from the coconut and lemon trees was in the ratio 3 : 2 and it was shared equally by Gopal and Ram as the initial amount spent by them were equal.
What was the value of output per acre of lemon trees planted?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Krishna distributed 10-acre land to Gopal and Ram who paid him the total amount in the ratio 2 : 3. Gopal invested a further Rs. 2 lakh in the land and planted coconut and lemon trees in the ratio 5 : 1 on equal areas of land. There were a total of 100 lemon trees. The cost of one coconut was Rs. 5. The crop took 7 years to mature and when the crop was reaped in 1997, the total revenue generated was 25% of the total amount put in by Gopal and Ram together. The revenue generated from the coconut and lemon trees was in the ratio 3 : 2 and it was shared equally by Gopal and Ram as the initial amount spent by them were equal.
What was the amount received by Gopal in 1997?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Krishna distributed 10-acre land to Gopal and Ram who paid him the total amount in the ratio 2 : 3. Gopal invested a further Rs. 2 lakh in the land and planted coconut and lemon trees in the ratio 5 : 1 on equal areas of land. There were a total of 100 lemon trees. The cost of one coconut was Rs. 5. The crop took 7 years to mature and when the crop was reaped in 1997, the total revenue generated was 25% of the total amount put in by Gopal and Ram together. The revenue generated from the coconut and lemon trees was in the ratio 3 : 2 and it was shared equally by Gopal and Ram as the initial amount spent by them were equal.
What was the value of output per tree for coconuts?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Krishna distributed 10-acre land to Gopal and Ram who paid him the total amount in the ratio 2 : 3. Gopal invested a further Rs. 2 lakh in the land and planted coconut and lemon trees in the ratio 5 : 1 on equal areas of land. There were a total of 100 lemon trees. The cost of one coconut was Rs. 5. The crop took 7 years to mature and when the crop was reaped in 1997, the total revenue generated was 25% of the total amount put in by Gopal and Ram together. The revenue generated from the coconut and lemon trees was in the ratio 3 : 2 and it was shared equally by Gopal and Ram as the initial amount spent by them were equal.
What was the ratio of yields per acre of land for coconuts and lemons (in terms of number of lemons and coconuts)?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following table.
ââââââââââââââ
âââââââNote: All projects start in 1997.
Which of the following had the least cost per room?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following table.
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âââââââNote: All projects start in 1997.
Which of the following has the maximum number of rooms per crore of rupees?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following table.
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âââââââNote: All projects start in 1997.
Additional direction: Assume that the cost of the project is incurred in the year of completion; interest is charged at the rate of 10% per annum.
What is the cost incurred for projects completed in 1998?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following table.
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âââââââNote: All projects start in 1997.
Additional direction: Assume that the cost of the project is incurred in the year of completion; interest is charged at the rate of 10% per annum.
What is the cost incurred for projects completed in 1999?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following table.
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âââââââNote: All projects start in 1997.
Additional direction: Assume that the cost of the project is incurred in the year of completion; interest is charged at the rate of 10% per annum.
What is the approximate cost incurred for projects completed by 2000?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The following table gives the tariff [in paise per kilo-watt-hour (kWh)] levied by the UPSEB in 1994-95, in four sectors and the regions within them. The table also gives the percentage change in the tariff as compared to 1991-92.
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If the amount of power consumed by the various regions in sector 1 is the same, then as compared to 1991-92 the net tariff in 1994-95
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The following table gives the tariff [in paise per kilo-watt-hour (kWh)] levied by the UPSEB in 1994-95, in four sectors and the regions within them. The table also gives the percentage change in the tariff as compared to 1991-92.
ââââââââââââââ
What was the approximate average tariff in region 3 in 1991-92?
Additional direction: The UPSEB supplies power under four categories: urban (25%), domestic (20%), industrial (40%) and rural (15%). In 1994-95, the total power produced by the UPSEB was, 7875 megawatts.
In 1994-95, if there was 10% decrease in the domestic consumption of power as compared to that in 1991-92, what was the consumption of power in the rural sector in 1991-92?
Additional direction: The UPSEB supplies power under four categories: urban (25%), domestic (20%), industrial (40%) and rural (15%). In 1994-95, the total power produced by the UPSEB was, 7875 megawatts.
In the given 2 years, what is the total tariff paid by the urban sector?
Additional direction: The UPSEB supplies power under four categories: urban (25%), domestic (20%), industrial (40%) and rural (15%). In 1994-95, the total power produced by the UPSEB was, 7875 megawatts.
Which of the following statements is true?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following table.
The table given below gives the annual details of loans from rural banks and agricultural loans over the years 1970 to 1983. Using this data answer the questions that follow.
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In 1974, the amount of agricultural loans formed what percentage of the total loans?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following table.
The table given below gives the annual details of loans from rural banks and agricultural loans over the years 1970 to 1983. Using this data answer the questions that follow.
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From the given data, the number of rural loans up to 1980 formed approximately what percentage of those in 1983?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following table.
The table given below gives the annual details of loans from rural banks and agricultural loans over the years 1970 to 1983. Using this data answer the questions that follow.
ââââââââââââââ
Which of the following pairs of years showed the maximum increase in the number of rural bank loans?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following table.
The table given below gives the annual details of loans from rural banks and agricultural loans over the years 1970 to 1983. Using this data answer the questions that follow.
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What is the value of the agricultural loans in 1983 at 1970 prices?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following table.
The table given below gives the annual details of loans from rural banks and agricultural loans over the years 1970 to 1983. Using this data answer the questions that follow.
ââââââââââââââ
In which year was the number of rural bank loans per rural bank least?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following table.
The table given below gives the annual details of loans from rural banks and agricultural loans over the years 1970 to 1983. Using this data answer the questions that follow.
ââââââââââââââ
What is the simple annual rate of increase in the number of agricultural loans from 1970 to 1983?
Additional direction: If the consumer price index for 1970 is to be taken as 105 and the indices for the subsequent years are to be corrected accordingly, then answer 184 and 185.
By roughly how many points do the indices for 1983 and 1975 differ?
Additional direction: If the consumer price index for 1970 is to be taken as 105 and the indices for the subsequent years are to be corrected accordingly, then answer 184 and 185.
What is the value of the loans in 1980 at 1983 prices?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The data given in the table shows the investment details in country ‘Fortune Land’ of companies A, B, C, D, E and F. Figures in the table are in US dollars in billions.
âââââââ
ââ
What is the percentage increase in investment of B, C, D and E from year 1 to year 3?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The data given in the table shows the investment details in country ‘Fortune Land’ of companies A, B, C, D, E and F. Figures in the table are in US dollars in billions.
âââââââ
ââ
What is the ratio of investments of E to F for the years 1 to 3?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The data given in the table shows the investment details in country ‘Fortune Land’ of companies A, B, C, D, E and F. Figures in the table are in US dollars in billions.
âââââââ
ââ
What is D’s contribution as a percentage of total investments in year 2?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The data given in the table shows the investment details in country ‘Fortune Land’ of companies A, B, C, D, E and F. Figures in the table are in US dollars in billions.
âââââââ
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For which company is investment not increased from year 1 to year 3?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The data given in the table shows the investment details in country ‘Fortune Land’ of companies A, B, C, D, E and F. Figures in the table are in US dollars in billions.
âââââââ
ââ
What is the percentage difference in investments of companies A, B, C and companies D, E, F in year 2?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.

The average revenue collected in the given 7 years is approximately
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.

The expenditure for the 7 years together form what per cent of the revenues during the same period?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.

Which year showed the greatest percentage increase in profit as compared to the previous year?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.

In which year was the growth in expenditure maximum as compared to the previous year?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.

If the profit in 1996 shows the annual rate of growth as it had shown in 1995 over the previous year, then what approximately will be the profit in 1996?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information, which gives data about certain coffee producers in India.
âââââââ
âââââââ
What is the maximum production capacity (in '000 tonnes) of Lipton for coffee?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information, which gives data about certain coffee producers in India.
âââââââ
âââââââ
Which company out of the four companies mentioned above has the maximum unutilised capacity (in '000 tonnes)?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information, which gives data about certain coffee producers in India.
âââââââ
âââââââ
What is the approximate total production capacity (in ‘000 tonnes) for coffee in India?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information, which gives data about certain coffee producers in India.
âââââââ
âââââââ
The highest price for coffee per kilogram is for
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information, which gives data about certain coffee producers in India.
âââââââ
âââââââ
What percent of the total market share (by sales value) is controlled by ‘others’?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Mulayam Software Co., before selling a package to its clients, follows the given schedule.
âââââââ
âââââââThe number of people employed in each month is:
âââââââ
âââââââ
Due to overrun in ‘design’, the design stage took 3 months, i.e. months 3, 4 and 5. The number of people working on design in the fifth month was 5. Calculate the percentage change in the cost incurred in the fifth month. (Due to improvement in ‘coding’ technique, this stage was completed in months 6-8 only.)
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Mulayam Software Co., before selling a package to its clients, follows the given schedule.
âââââââ
âââââââThe number of people employed in each month is:
âââââââ
âââââââ
With reference to the above question, what is the cost incurred in the new ‘coding’ stage? (Under the new technique, 4 people work in the sixth month and 5 in the eighth.)
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Mulayam Software Co., before selling a package to its clients, follows the given schedule.
âââââââ
âââââââThe number of people employed in each month is:
âââââââ
âââââââ
What is the difference in cost between the old and the new techniques?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Mulayam Software Co., before selling a package to its clients, follows the given schedule.
âââââââ
âââââââThe number of people employed in each month is:
âââââââ
âââââââ
Under the new technique, which stage of software development is most expensive for Mulayam Software Co.?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Mulayam Software Co., before selling a package to its clients, follows the given schedule.
âââââââ
âââââââThe number of people employed in each month is:
âââââââ
âââââââ
Which five consecutive months have the lowest average cost per man-month under the new technique?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The amount of money invested (rupees in crores) in the core infrastructure areas of two districts, Chittoor and Khammam of Andhra Pradesh, is as follows.
âââââââ
âââââââ
By what per cent was the total investment in the two districts more in 1996 as compared to 1995?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The amount of money invested (rupees in crores) in the core infrastructure areas of two districts, Chittoor and Khammam of Andhra Pradesh, is as follows.
âââââââ
âââââââ
The investment in electricity and thermal energy in 1995 in these two districts formed what per cent of the total investment made in that year?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The amount of money invested (rupees in crores) in the core infrastructure areas of two districts, Chittoor and Khammam of Andhra Pradesh, is as follows.
âââââââ
âââââââ
In Khammam district, the investment in which area in 1996 showed the highest percentage increase over the investment in that area in 1995?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The amount of money invested (rupees in crores) in the core infrastructure areas of two districts, Chittoor and Khammam of Andhra Pradesh, is as follows.
âââââââ
âââââââ
Approximately how many times was the total investment in Chittoor to the total investment in Khammam?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The amount of money invested (rupees in crores) in the core infrastructure areas of two districts, Chittoor and Khammam of Andhra Pradesh, is as follows.
âââââââ
âââââââ
If the total investment in Khammam shows the same rate of increase in 1997, as it had shown from 1995 to 1996, what approximately would be the total investment in Khammam in 1997?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The first table gives the percentage of students in MBA class, who sought employment in the areas of finance, marketing and software. The second table gives the average starting salaries of the students per month, (rupees in thousands) in these areas. The third table gives the number of students who passed out in each year.
First table
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âââââââSecond table
âââââââ
âââââââThird table
The number of students who get jobs in finance is less than the students getting marketing jobs, in the 5 years, by
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The first table gives the percentage of students in MBA class, who sought employment in the areas of finance, marketing and software. The second table gives the average starting salaries of the students per month, (rupees in thousands) in these areas. The third table gives the number of students who passed out in each year.
First table
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âââââââSecond table
âââââââ
âââââââThird table
What is the percentage increase in the average salary of finance from 1992 to 1996?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The first table gives the percentage of students in MBA class, who sought employment in the areas of finance, marketing and software. The second table gives the average starting salaries of the students per month, (rupees in thousands) in these areas. The third table gives the number of students who passed out in each year.
First table
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âââââââSecond table
âââââââ
âââââââThird table
The average annual rate at which the initial salary offered in software increases is
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The first table gives the percentage of students in MBA class, who sought employment in the areas of finance, marketing and software. The second table gives the average starting salaries of the students per month, (rupees in thousands) in these areas. The third table gives the number of students who passed out in each year.
First table
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âââââââSecond table
âââââââ
âââââââThird table
What is the average monthly salary offered to a management graduate in 1993?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The first table gives the percentage of students in MBA class, who sought employment in the areas of finance, marketing and software. The second table gives the average starting salaries of the students per month, (rupees in thousands) in these areas. The third table gives the number of students who passed out in each year.
First table
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âââââââSecond table
âââââââ
âââââââThird table
In 1994, students seeking jobs in finance earned ___ more than those opting for software (per annum).
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
âââââââ
âââââââ
âââââââGhosh Babu surveyed his companies and obtained the following data. Income tax is paid from profit before tax and the remaining amount is apportioned to dividend and retained earnings. The retained earnings were accumulated into reserves. The reserves at the beginning of 1991 were Rs.80 lakh.
In which year was the tax per rupee of ‘profit before tax’ lowest?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
âââââââ
âââââââ
âââââââGhosh Babu surveyed his companies and obtained the following data. Income tax is paid from profit before tax and the remaining amount is apportioned to dividend and retained earnings. The retained earnings were accumulated into reserves. The reserves at the beginning of 1991 were Rs.80 lakh.
In which year was the sales per rupee of share capital highest?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
âââââââ
âââââââ
âââââââGhosh Babu surveyed his companies and obtained the following data. Income tax is paid from profit before tax and the remaining amount is apportioned to dividend and retained earnings. The retained earnings were accumulated into reserves. The reserves at the beginning of 1991 were Rs.80 lakh.
In which year was the profit before tax per rupee of sales highest?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
âââââââ
âââââââ
âââââââGhosh Babu surveyed his companies and obtained the following data. Income tax is paid from profit before tax and the remaining amount is apportioned to dividend and retained earnings. The retained earnings were accumulated into reserves. The reserves at the beginning of 1991 were Rs.80 lakh.
In which year was the percentage addition to reserves over previous years reserves the highest?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
âââââââ
âââââââ
âââââââGhosh Babu surveyed his companies and obtained the following data. Income tax is paid from profit before tax and the remaining amount is apportioned to dividend and retained earnings. The retained earnings were accumulated into reserves. The reserves at the beginning of 1991 were Rs.80 lakh.
Amount of the reserves at the end of 1994 is
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following table.
âââââââ
âââââââ
The maximum percentage decrease in market share is
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following table.
âââââââ
âââââââ
The city in which minimum number of products increased their market shares in 1993-94 is
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following table.
âââââââ
âââââââ
The market shares of which products did not decrease between 1993-94 in any city?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following table.
âââââââ
âââââââ
The number of products which had 100% market share in four metropolitan cities is
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following table.
âââââââ
âââââââ
The number of products which doubled their market shares in one or more cities is
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following table.
Machine M1 as well as machine M2 can independently produce either product P or product Q. The time taken by machines M1 and M2 (in minutes) to produce one unit of product P and product Q are given in the table below: (Each machine works 8 hour per day).
âââââââ
âââââââ
What is the maximum number of units that can be manufactured in one day?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following table.
Machine M1 as well as machine M2 can independently produce either product P or product Q. The time taken by machines M1 and M2 (in minutes) to produce one unit of product P and product Q are given in the table below: (Each machine works 8 hour per day).
âââââââ
âââââââ
If M1 works at half its normal efficiency, what is the maximum number of units produced, if at least one unit of each must be produced?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following table.
Machine M1 as well as machine M2 can independently produce either product P or product Q. The time taken by machines M1 and M2 (in minutes) to produce one unit of product P and product Q are given in the table below: (Each machine works 8 hour per day).
âââââââ
âââââââ
What is the least number of machine hours required to produce 30 pieces of P and 25 pieces of Q respectively?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following table.
Machine M1 as well as machine M2 can independently produce either product P or product Q. The time taken by machines M1 and M2 (in minutes) to produce one unit of product P and product Q are given in the table below: (Each machine works 8 hour per day).
âââââââ
âââââââ
If the number of units of P is to be three times that of Q, what is the maximum idle time to maximize total units manufactured?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following table.
Machine M1 as well as machine M2 can independently produce either product P or product Q. The time taken by machines M1 and M2 (in minutes) to produce one unit of product P and product Q are given in the table below: (Each machine works 8 hour per day).
âââââââ
âââââââ
If equal quantities of both are to be produced, then out of the four choices given below, the least efficient way would be
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
A company produces five types of shirts — A, B, C, D and E — using cloth of three qualities — high, medium and low -, using dyes of three qualities — high, medium and low. One shirt requires 1.5 m of cloth. The following table gives respectively:
1. The number of shirts (of each category) produced, in thousands
2. The percentage distribution of cloth quality in each type of shirt, and
3. The percentage distribution of dye quality in each type of shirt.
âââââââ
âââââââ
What is the total requirement of cloth?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
A company produces five types of shirts — A, B, C, D and E — using cloth of three qualities — high, medium and low -, using dyes of three qualities — high, medium and low. One shirt requires 1.5 m of cloth. The following table gives respectively:
1. The number of shirts (of each category) produced, in thousands
2. The percentage distribution of cloth quality in each type of shirt, and
3. The percentage distribution of dye quality in each type of shirt.
âââââââ
âââââââ
How many metres of low-quality cloth is consumed?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
A company produces five types of shirts — A, B, C, D and E — using cloth of three qualities — high, medium and low -, using dyes of three qualities — high, medium and low. One shirt requires 1.5 m of cloth. The following table gives respectively:
1. The number of shirts (of each category) produced, in thousands
2. The percentage distribution of cloth quality in each type of shirt, and
3. The percentage distribution of dye quality in each type of shirt.
âââââââ
âââââââ
How many metres of high quality cloth is consumed by A-type shirts?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
A company produces five types of shirts — A, B, C, D and E — using cloth of three qualities — high, medium and low -, using dyes of three qualities — high, medium and low. One shirt requires 1.5 m of cloth. The following table gives respectively:
1. The number of shirts (of each category) produced, in thousands
2. The percentage distribution of cloth quality in each type of shirt, and
3. The percentage distribution of dye quality in each type of shirt.
âââââââ
âââââââ
What is the ratio of the three qualities of dyes in high-quality cloth?
Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
A company produces five types of shirts — A, B, C, D and E — using cloth of three qualities — high, medium and low -, using dyes of three qualities — high, medium and low. One shirt requires 1.5 m of cloth. The following table gives respectively:
1. The number of shirts (of each category) produced, in thousands
2. The percentage distribution of cloth quality in each type of shirt, and
3. The percentage distribution of dye quality in each type of shirt.
âââââââ
âââââââ
What is the ratio of low-quality dye used for C-type shirts to that used for D- type shirts?
Ghosh Babu has recently acquired four companies namely Arc – Net Technologies (ANT), Babu Anta Transport (BAT), Charles Anter Tailor (CAT) and Daud Akbar Transistors (DAT). When the results of the companies for the year 1992 – 93 were placed before him. He found a few interesting things about them. While the profits of CAT and DAT were the same, the sales of CAT were the same as those of BAT . Profits of ANT were 10% of its sales, where as the profits of BAT were 20% of its sales. While the total expenses of CAT were 5 times its profits, sales of DAT were 3 times its profits. The total expenses of CAT were Rs.10,00,000, the total expenses of ANT were 10% less than those of CAT. Profits are defined as the difference between sales and total expenses.
Which company had the lowest sales?
Ghosh Babu has recently acquired four companies namely Arc – Net Technologies (ANT), Babu Anta Transport (BAT), Charles Anter Tailor (CAT) and Daud Akbar Transistors (DAT). When the results of the companies for the year 1992 – 93 were placed before him. He found a few interesting things about them. While the profits of CAT and DAT were the same, the sales of CAT were the same as those of BAT . Profits of ANT were 10% of its sales, where as the profits of BAT were 20% of its sales. While the total expenses of CAT were 5 times its profits, sales of DAT were 3 times its profits. The total expenses of CAT were Rs.10,00,000, the total expenses of ANT were 10% less than those of CAT. Profits are defined as the difference between sales and total expenses.
Which company had the highest total expenses?
Ghosh Babu has recently acquired four companies namely Arc – Net Technologies (ANT), Babu Anta Transport (BAT), Charles Anter Tailor (CAT) and Daud Akbar Transistors (DAT). When the results of the companies for the year 1992 – 93 were placed before him. He found a few interesting things about them. While the profits of CAT and DAT were the same, the sales of CAT were the same as those of BAT . Profits of ANT were 10% of its sales, where as the profits of BAT were 20% of its sales. While the total expenses of CAT were 5 times its profits, sales of DAT were 3 times its profits. The total expenses of CAT were Rs.10,00,000, the total expenses of ANT were 10% less than those of CAT. Profits are defined as the difference between sales and total expenses.
Which company had the lowest profits?
Ghosh Babu has recently acquired four companies namely Arc – Net Technologies (ANT), Babu Anta Transport (BAT), Charles Anter Tailor (CAT) and Daud Akbar Transistors (DAT). When the results of the companies for the year 1992 – 93 were placed before him. He found a few interesting things about them. While the profits of CAT and DAT were the same, the sales of CAT were the same as those of BAT . Profits of ANT were 10% of its sales, where as the profits of BAT were 20% of its sales. While the total expenses of CAT were 5 times its profits, sales of DAT were 3 times its profits. The total expenses of CAT were Rs.10,00,000, the total expenses of ANT were 10% less than those of CAT. Profits are defined as the difference between sales and total expenses.
Which company had the highest profits.
Use the following information:
A professor keeps data on students tabulated by performance and sex of the student . The data is kept on
a computer disk, but unfortunately some of it is lost because of a virus. Only the following could be
recovered :
âââââââ
âââââââ
Panic buttons were pressed but to no avail. An expert committee was formed, which decided that the following facts were self evident:
- Half the students were either excellent or good.
- 40% of the students were females.
- One third of the male students were average.
How many students were both female and excellent?
Use the following information:
A professor keeps data on students tabulated by performance and sex of the student . The data is kept on
a computer disk, but unfortunately some of it is lost because of a virus. Only the following could be
recovered :
âââââââ
âââââââ
Panic buttons were pressed but to no avail. An expert committee was formed, which decided that the following facts were self evident:
- Half the students were either excellent or good.
- 40% of the students were females.
- One third of the male students were average.
How many students were both male and good?
Use the following information:
A professor keeps data on students tabulated by performance and sex of the student . The data is kept on
a computer disk, but unfortunately some of it is lost because of a virus. Only the following could be
recovered :
âââââââ
âââââââ
Panic buttons were pressed but to no avail. An expert committee was formed, which decided that the following facts were self evident:
- Half the students were either excellent or good.
- 40% of the students were females.
- One third of the male students were average.
Among average students, what was the ratio of male to female?
Use the following information:
A professor keeps data on students tabulated by performance and sex of the student . The data is kept on
a computer disk, but unfortunately some of it is lost because of a virus. Only the following could be
recovered :
âââââââ
âââââââ
Panic buttons were pressed but to no avail. An expert committee was formed, which decided that the following facts were self evident:
- Half the students were either excellent or good.
- 40% of the students were females.
- One third of the male students were average.
What proportion of female students were good?
Use the following information:
A professor keeps data on students tabulated by performance and sex of the student . The data is kept on
a computer disk, but unfortunately some of it is lost because of a virus. Only the following could be
recovered :
âââââââ
âââââââ
Panic buttons were pressed but to no avail. An expert committee was formed, which decided that the following facts were self evident:
- Half the students were either excellent or good.
- 40% of the students were females.
- One third of the male students were average.
What proportion of good students were male?
Given below are the forecasts of the World and Asian energy demand for the years 1990, 2000 and 2010 AD. The demand is given in million barrels per day, crude oil equivalent.âââââââ
âââââââ
ââââââââââââââ
Over 1990 – 2010, which two fuels meet more than 60 percent of the total energy demand of both World and Asia?
Given below are the forecasts of the World and Asian energy demand for the years 1990, 2000 and 2010 AD. The demand is given in million barrels per day, crude oil equivalent.âââââââ
âââââââ
ââââââââââââââ
Which fuel’s proportion in the total energy demand increases over the decade 1990–2000 and decreases over the decade 2000 – 2010 for both the World and Asia?
Given below are the forecasts of the World and Asian energy demand for the years 1990, 2000 and 2010 AD. The demand is given in million barrels per day, crude oil equivalent.âââââââ
âââââââ
ââââââââââââââ
Which is the fuel whose proportion in the total energy demand will decrease continuously over the period 1990 – 2010, in Asia?
Given below are the forecasts of the World and Asian energy demand for the years 1990, 2000 and 2010 AD. The demand is given in million barrels per day, crude oil equivalent.âââââââ
âââââââ
ââââââââââââââ
Which is the fuel whose proportion to the total energy demand of the world will remain constant over the period 1990 – 2010 but whose proportion will increase in the total energy demand in Asia?
The following table gives the national income and the population of a country for the years 1984 – 85 to 1989 – 90. For each o the following questions choose the best alternative:
âââââââ
The increase in the per capita income compared to the previous year is lowest for the year :
The following table gives the national income and the population of a country for the years 1984 – 85 to 1989 – 90. For each o the following questions choose the best alternative:
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The per capita income is highest for the year :
The following table gives the national income and the population of a country for the years 1984 – 85 to 1989 – 90. For each o the following questions choose the best alternative:
âââââââ
The difference between the percentage increase in per capita income and the percentage increase in the population compared to the previous year is highest for the year:
The following table gives the national income and the population of a country for the years 1984 – 85 to 1989 – 90. For each o the following questions choose the best alternative:
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The rate of increase in population was lowest in the year:
The following table gives the national income and the population of a country for the years 1984 – 85 to 1989 – 90. For each o the following questions choose the best alternative:
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Increase in the per capita income compared to the previous year among the years given below was highest for the year: